Do Genesis and Romans contradict themselves?

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.

Elin

Banned
Jan 19, 2013
11,909
141
0
#42
Regardless, it means that we are born into corrupt traditions and idols of men. We are all born
into this economical tradition
that we uphold even though we know that it kills thousands a day.
It has nothing to do with "economy," and only to do with hearts born in sin, which is why the love sin instead of righteousness.
 

Elin

Banned
Jan 19, 2013
11,909
141
0
#43
Unbelief stems from a religion based in traditions and systems of men. Again if Jesus is God, why does his people pay rent, light and gas bills? God isn't keeping the church lights on, the collection plate is!
They could refuse to pay their bills, and provide their own lodging, light and gas.

No one is keeping them from providing for themselves, nor is anyone forcing them to buy them from others.
 
Last edited:

Elin

Banned
Jan 19, 2013
11,909
141
0
#44
Perhaps simplistically, Paul is seemingly stating, that from Adam to Moses, sin abounded (and the "wages of sin = death", Rom 6); but, death-dealing sin still was not "formally charged" against anybody, in any legalistic way. Death & Sin, from Adam, affected following generations of humans, to the time of Moses, even w/o the Law officially functioning (and informing people of their sins).
Actually there is no perhaps or seemingly to it. . .your notion is self-contradictory.
Paul was not stating they died for their sin, because their sin was not even charged to them.

First of all he was writing to Christians, of which a substantial minority would have been
Jews (4:1, chps 9-11).
The whole purpose of the letter is to vindicate God's righteous judgment, particularly in
his rejection of his chosen people, Israel.

'Tis fantasy to think the Roman law was in mind here.

Paul is making an argument which reconciles two seemingly contradictory Biblical facts.

Because the wages of sin is death, and because death reigned between Adam and Moses
when there was no law and, therefore,
sin was not taken into account,
then of what sin were they all guilty, since guilt of sin is the only cause of death?

They were guilty of the sin of Adam, they were made sinners by the sin of the one man,
the first Adam (Ro 5:19), they were condemned because of the sin of the one man, the
first Adam (Ro 5:18).

However, correspondingly, they are also made righteous by the obedience, even to
death on a cross! (Php 2:8), of the one man, the second Adam, Christ Jesus through
faith in him.

They were born in the sin of Adam, is why they died because of the guilt of sin when the law
was not taken into account.

There is absolutely no contradiction between Ge and Ro.






 
Last edited: