I want to address this topic to clarify what I think is a misconception. I am aware of nine occurrences of the Greek word that is translated as "impute","imputed" or "imputing", in the KJV of the New Testament.
The word or concept of something that is "imputed" is understood two different ways in contemporary Christian thought.
The meaning that the word "imputed" is intended to convey may have changed over time, and this may have contributed to what I consider to be the "misconception" regarding the words intended meaning in scripture.
1. The word "imputed" means to "recognize" a characteristic that a person possesses" at the time.
2. The word "imputed" does not mean that a characteristic is undeservedly bestowed upon a person.
The greek word # 3049 is translated as "reckoned" in the KJV in Romans 4:10. The same word #3049 is translated as imputed in Romans 4:11.
3049. logizomai - to take an inventory, i.e. estimate (literally or figuratively):--conclude, (ac-)count (of), + despise, esteem, impute, lay, number, reason, reckon, suppose, think (on).
Abraham had done the "right thing" in Romans 4:11 and God simply recognized that Abraham had done the right thing in God's eyes by putting His faith in God.
Being "righteous" is not a stamp of approval indicating that a person has been undeservedly and permanently absolved of all evil or made incorruptible forever. The word means that they are "right" before God in what they have done.
Ro 4:8 Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin.(KJV)
Ro 4:11 And he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had yet being uncircumcised: that he might be the father of all them that believe, though they be not circumcised; that righteousness might be imputed unto them also:
Ro 4:22 And therefore it was imputed to him for righteousness.
Ro 4:23 ¶ Now it was not written for his sake alone, that it was imputed to him;
Ro 4:24 But for us also, to whom it shall be imputed, if we believe on him that raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead;
Ro 5:13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
2Co 5:19 To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation. {committed...: Gr. put in us} (KJV)
Ga 3:6 ¶ Even as Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness. {accounted: or, imputed }
Jas 2:23 And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God. (KJV)
The misinterpretation of this word (strongs #3049) appears to be behind the misconception that a Christian is not able to sin.
The concept that states "where there is no law there is no more sin", is used in two different ways in scripture, they are seen in Romans 4:8 and Romans 5:3.
In Romans 4:8 the Lord does not "impute sin" because it does not exist - "the sin had been forgiven by God".
The first occurrence of the concept is in Romans 3:25 where the bible says that the persons "past sins" were forgiven, and it says the same thing of the person in Romans 4:7 and then the statement of sin not being "imputed" or recognized immediately follows in the next verse, Romans 4:8. So the sin mentioned in Romans 4:8 was not "imputed" or recognized because it did not exist. God had forgiven the person for violating or breaking His law.
The second occurrence of the concept is found in Romans 5:3 where the phrase "not imputed" or not recognized" means that before the Law was given to Moses people were sinful, but it was not considered to be a violation of the Law (sin is transgression of the law, 1 Jn 3:4) because the Law did not exist before it was given to Moses.
The misconception "that a Christian cannot sin" is seen to be supported by 1 Jn 3:9 and the two misconceptions then appear to support one another.
1Jo 3:9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. {is born: or, has been born} (KJV)
1 John 3:9 simply refers to the Christian who the chapter had previously identified as a person who had -
a. purified himself as 1 John 3:3 illustrates.
b. abides in Jesus (and His teaching) and does not sin as 1 Jn 3:6 illustrates.
The person who sins has not seen or known (understood completely) who Jesus is. To think that we know God is a mistake, we do not know Him (completely), but He does know us, as Gal 4:9 says.
Joh 17:25 O righteous Father, the world hath not known thee: but I have known thee, and these have known that thou hast sent me.
Ga 4:9 But "now, after that ye have known God, or rather are known of God", how turn ye again to the weak and beggarly elements, whereunto ye desire again to be in bondage?
1Co 13:12 For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known. {darkly: Gr. in a riddle} (KJV)
The word or concept of something that is "imputed" is understood two different ways in contemporary Christian thought.
The meaning that the word "imputed" is intended to convey may have changed over time, and this may have contributed to what I consider to be the "misconception" regarding the words intended meaning in scripture.
1. The word "imputed" means to "recognize" a characteristic that a person possesses" at the time.
2. The word "imputed" does not mean that a characteristic is undeservedly bestowed upon a person.
The greek word # 3049 is translated as "reckoned" in the KJV in Romans 4:10. The same word #3049 is translated as imputed in Romans 4:11.
3049. logizomai - to take an inventory, i.e. estimate (literally or figuratively):--conclude, (ac-)count (of), + despise, esteem, impute, lay, number, reason, reckon, suppose, think (on).
Abraham had done the "right thing" in Romans 4:11 and God simply recognized that Abraham had done the right thing in God's eyes by putting His faith in God.
Being "righteous" is not a stamp of approval indicating that a person has been undeservedly and permanently absolved of all evil or made incorruptible forever. The word means that they are "right" before God in what they have done.
Ro 4:8 Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin.(KJV)
Ro 4:11 And he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had yet being uncircumcised: that he might be the father of all them that believe, though they be not circumcised; that righteousness might be imputed unto them also:
Ro 4:22 And therefore it was imputed to him for righteousness.
Ro 4:23 ¶ Now it was not written for his sake alone, that it was imputed to him;
Ro 4:24 But for us also, to whom it shall be imputed, if we believe on him that raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead;
Ro 5:13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
2Co 5:19 To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation. {committed...: Gr. put in us} (KJV)
Ga 3:6 ¶ Even as Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness. {accounted: or, imputed }
Jas 2:23 And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God. (KJV)
The misinterpretation of this word (strongs #3049) appears to be behind the misconception that a Christian is not able to sin.
The concept that states "where there is no law there is no more sin", is used in two different ways in scripture, they are seen in Romans 4:8 and Romans 5:3.
In Romans 4:8 the Lord does not "impute sin" because it does not exist - "the sin had been forgiven by God".
The first occurrence of the concept is in Romans 3:25 where the bible says that the persons "past sins" were forgiven, and it says the same thing of the person in Romans 4:7 and then the statement of sin not being "imputed" or recognized immediately follows in the next verse, Romans 4:8. So the sin mentioned in Romans 4:8 was not "imputed" or recognized because it did not exist. God had forgiven the person for violating or breaking His law.
The second occurrence of the concept is found in Romans 5:3 where the phrase "not imputed" or not recognized" means that before the Law was given to Moses people were sinful, but it was not considered to be a violation of the Law (sin is transgression of the law, 1 Jn 3:4) because the Law did not exist before it was given to Moses.
The misconception "that a Christian cannot sin" is seen to be supported by 1 Jn 3:9 and the two misconceptions then appear to support one another.
1Jo 3:9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. {is born: or, has been born} (KJV)
1 John 3:9 simply refers to the Christian who the chapter had previously identified as a person who had -
a. purified himself as 1 John 3:3 illustrates.
b. abides in Jesus (and His teaching) and does not sin as 1 Jn 3:6 illustrates.
The person who sins has not seen or known (understood completely) who Jesus is. To think that we know God is a mistake, we do not know Him (completely), but He does know us, as Gal 4:9 says.
Joh 17:25 O righteous Father, the world hath not known thee: but I have known thee, and these have known that thou hast sent me.
Ga 4:9 But "now, after that ye have known God, or rather are known of God", how turn ye again to the weak and beggarly elements, whereunto ye desire again to be in bondage?
1Co 13:12 For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known. {darkly: Gr. in a riddle} (KJV)
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