There is no single term in the Bible that denotes this doctrine. It is purely a matter of formal belief and politics. Considering this, the doctrine states to the effect that the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are each without a beginning, have existed for an eternity, uncreated, and equal. In other words, each is neither greater nor lesser than the other.
Considering this definition, John 1:1 is therefore contradictory because someone who is with another person cannot be the same as the other person at the same time; and, the “spirit” is not a person even though it may be personified in the bible. Most importantly, the translation is not grammatically correct. The ancient Koine Greek did not use indefinite articles such as “a” and “an.” English grammar requires the use of these articles for the proper context and meaning is understood. In other word, the grammatically correct translation should be rendered: “…the Word was a god.” The indefinite articles are inserted before “god” in Acts 12:22; 28:6. In comparison, several other scriptures that are grammatically and structurally the same are translated with such indefinite articles. See Mark 6:49; 11:23; John 4:19; 6:70.
At John 8:58 a number of translations, for instance The Jerusalem Bible, have Jesus saying: “Before Abraham ever was, I Am.” Was Jesus there teaching, as Trinitarians assert, that he was known by the title “I Am”? And, as they claim, does this mean that he was Jehovah of the Hebrew Scriptures, since the King James Version at
Exodus 3:14 states: “God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM”
At
Exodus 3:14 (KJ) the phrase “I AM” is used as a title for God to indicate that he really existed and would do what he promised. The Pentateuch and Haftorahs, edited by Dr. J. H. Hertz, says of the phrase: “To the Israelites in bondage, the meaning would be, ‘Although He has not yet displayed His power towards you, He will do so; He is eternal and will certainly redeem you.’ Most moderns follow Rashi [a French Bible and Talmud commentator] in rendering [
Exodus 3:14] ‘I will be what I will be.’”
The expression at
John 8:58 is quite different from the one used at
Exodus 3:14. Jesus did not use it as a name or a title but as a means of explaining his prehuman existence. Hence, note how some other Bible versions render
John 8:58:
1869: “From before Abraham was, I have been.” The New Testament, by G. R. Noyes.
1935: “I existed before Abraham was born!” The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed.
1965: “Before Abraham was born, I was already the one that I am.” Das Neue Testament, by Jörg Zink.
1981: “I was alive before Abraham was born!” The Simple English Bible.
1984: “Before Abraham came into existence, I have been.” New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures.
Thus, the real thought of the Greek used here is that God’s created “firstborn,” Jesus, had existed long before Abraham was born.-
Colossians 1:15;
Proverbs 8:22, 23, 30;
Revelation 3:14.
Again, the context shows this to be the correct understanding. This time the Jews wanted to stone Jesus for claiming to “have seen Abraham” although, as they said, he was not yet 50 years old. (Verse 57) Jesus’ natural response was to tell the truth about his age. So he naturally told them that he “was alive before Abraham was born!”-The Simple English Bible.