First, let me preface this post by saying that I’m not trying to sound wise, it’s a legitimate question I’m hoping to get some better insight into……
In some Christian paths, for a person to be ‘saved’, they must undergo a ‘spirit baptism’; this, in turn, is required to be ‘evidenced’ by a phenomenon called ‘speaking in tongues’.
Seems fairly straightforward, however, what happens if the individual in question is deaf or mute, or both, or, for whatever physical/mental reasons cannot produce speech (their own language or otherwise)??
Do they speak “tongues” it in their head, are they somehow exempt from this requirement? How does it work with these individuals??
Yes, I know for some paths, “tongues” do not need to be evidenced; I’m asking about those traditions in which it is, for all intents and purposes, a doctrinal “requirement” based upon their beliefs.
In some Christian paths, for a person to be ‘saved’, they must undergo a ‘spirit baptism’; this, in turn, is required to be ‘evidenced’ by a phenomenon called ‘speaking in tongues’.
Seems fairly straightforward, however, what happens if the individual in question is deaf or mute, or both, or, for whatever physical/mental reasons cannot produce speech (their own language or otherwise)??
Do they speak “tongues” it in their head, are they somehow exempt from this requirement? How does it work with these individuals??
Yes, I know for some paths, “tongues” do not need to be evidenced; I’m asking about those traditions in which it is, for all intents and purposes, a doctrinal “requirement” based upon their beliefs.