The norm ?

[Budman]

First, I must acknowledge that there is no explicit verse that directly settles this issue. At the same time, I don't think that an explicit verse is necessary to prove that something is scriptural. I think that if a doctrine is implied in Scripture or logically follows from what we find in Scripture, and if there is nothing in Scripture that directly refutes it, then that belief can be considered scriptural. I think most people agree with me on that point, but it bears repeating, especially when considering the Marian dogmas. When it comes to Catholic beliefs about Mary, people tend to place demands on the evidence they will accept that are way more stringent and unyielding than the demands that they place on their own beliefs.

Romans 3:10, 23, 5:12, Luke 2:24 (Leviticus 12:8) directly refutes the idea that Mary was sinless. The Catholic church is clearly at odds with scripture.

When will you come out of her?

 

[notuptome]

sure enough the HS inspired the scriptures but He certainly did not inspire you and your interpretation - I know at least two that did not sin and remained righteous - it seems Jesus surrendered His divinity and became semi human whilst Mary's surrendered humanity would have made her semi divine - wincam

Jesus set aside the glory that was His in heaven to become like man His creation. Jesus did not become less divine in His body of flesh.

Mary as semi-divine clearly reveals the pagan philosophy upon which that teaching is based. You cannot get Mary right until you get Christ correct.

Ac 4:12 Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.


For the cause of Christ
Roger