J
Re: Who gets the promises?: Jews Church? : "Replacement theology": Other thoughts
No they aren't brother.
Israelite and Jew are not used synonymously in these cases. If you reread Romans 11:1, you would see that he clearly lays out his heritage as being an Israelite from the tribe of Benjamin. He speaks nothing of Jews all throughout that chapter for a reason; God's promises is to the Children of Israel and not the Jews (this is if you truthfully read the words of the Bible). Also, like I stated before, not all Israelites are Jews. (sidenote, people always mention when God said he would bring Israel and Judah back together, and somehow make this about the Jews, while ignoring the fact that those who lived in the Northern Kingdom were not considered Judeans.....ever, but I digress)
To reiterate, Romans 11 speaks directly to the House of Israel. As much as Paul used the word Jew in his writing, it never struck you as odd that when he talks about God's chosen people, he didn't mention the word once but spoke of the Israelites? If they were indeed the same, Paul would have mixed it up in there, but he didn't. Paul didn't used the word Jew and Israel(ite) in the same context because they were not the same.
Romans 11:1 So I ask, God has not rejected his people, has he? Absolutely not! For I too am an Israelite, a descendant of Abraham, from the tribe of Benjamin.
Paul called himself a jew...
Galatians 2:15 We who are Jews by nature, and not sinners of the Gentiles,
Often the Scripture makes a general distinction, either jew or gentile, that is done in Rom 9-11...
Romans 10:12, 21 For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him.
But to Israel he saith, All day long I have stretched forth my hands unto a disobedient and gainsaying people.
Thus in Rom 11 Israel and Jew are used synonomously.
Paul called himself a jew...
Galatians 2:15 We who are Jews by nature, and not sinners of the Gentiles,
Often the Scripture makes a general distinction, either jew or gentile, that is done in Rom 9-11...
Romans 10:12, 21 For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him.
But to Israel he saith, All day long I have stretched forth my hands unto a disobedient and gainsaying people.
Thus in Rom 11 Israel and Jew are used synonomously.
Israelite and Jew are not used synonymously in these cases. If you reread Romans 11:1, you would see that he clearly lays out his heritage as being an Israelite from the tribe of Benjamin. He speaks nothing of Jews all throughout that chapter for a reason; God's promises is to the Children of Israel and not the Jews (this is if you truthfully read the words of the Bible). Also, like I stated before, not all Israelites are Jews. (sidenote, people always mention when God said he would bring Israel and Judah back together, and somehow make this about the Jews, while ignoring the fact that those who lived in the Northern Kingdom were not considered Judeans.....ever, but I digress)
To reiterate, Romans 11 speaks directly to the House of Israel. As much as Paul used the word Jew in his writing, it never struck you as odd that when he talks about God's chosen people, he didn't mention the word once but spoke of the Israelites? If they were indeed the same, Paul would have mixed it up in there, but he didn't. Paul didn't used the word Jew and Israel(ite) in the same context because they were not the same.