Yes, the Greek has Hades, but that does not mean that there are no flames and torment in Hades. Indeed they are the precursor to the Lake of Fire. And this is definitely NOT an excuse to denigrate the KJV, but to turn to Strong's Exhaustive Concordance and check it out (as all diligent students should). It seems that you take every opportunity to put down the KJV, which is indeed the Word of God. So you are not attacking just a translation, but Holy Scriptures.
By your own reasoning, every negative comment you or others make about the NIV, NASB, ESV, or any other sound translation is "attacking the Holy Scriptures". Therefore, you should stop.
Why does Jesus need to have the keys of hell? ...
That is why the call is given out to saved believers that live in sin without repentance and those who have erred from the truth that have stopped believing in him to depart from iniquity by going before that throne of grace for help to see the truth in His words in the KJV Bible to discern good & evil by Him, so they can call on Him for help to depart from iniquity.
That is why the call is given out to saved believers that live in sin without repentance and those who have erred from the truth that have stopped believing in him to depart from iniquity by going before that throne of grace for help to see the truth in His words in the KJV Bible to discern good & evil by Him, so they can call on Him for help to depart from iniquity.
Without the bafflegab of unnecessary clauses, here is what you claim: "the call is given out to (some people) to (do something) by (some method) for (some purpose)"
The "do something" is "depart from iniquity". The "some method" is "by going before the throne of grace". The "some purpose" is, in your claim, "help to see the truth in the KJV...".
So, I ask you a simple question: Where in the Bible is the call given to anyone to go before the Lord for help to see the truth in the KJV?