The Blood of Christ: "Ransom" NOT "Penal Substitution"

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Nov 26, 2011
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Jesus came to redeem us from ALL iniquity and make us pure.

Tit 2:14 Who gave himself for us, that he might redeem us from all iniquity, and purify unto himself a peculiar people, zealous of good works.

Being redeemed means being ransomed.

G3084 - Redeem -lutroō
From G3083; to ransom (literally or figuratively): - redeem.

The Bible teaches that a Christian is both redeemed and forgiven. Redemption and forgiveness are two different aspects of salvation.

Col 1:14 In whom we have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins:

G629 - Redemption - apolutrōsis
From a compound of G575 and G3083; (the act) ransom in full, that is, (figuratively) riddance, or (specifically) Christian salvation: - deliverance, redemption.

Jesus bought us with His blood. His blood was the price He paid to ransom us from all iniquity.

1Co 7:22 For he that is called in the Lord, being a servant, is the Lord's freeman: likewise also he that is called, being free, is Christ's servant.
1Co 7:23 Ye are bought with a price; be not ye the servants of men.

A sinner is a slave to sin because they yield to sin.

Rom 6:16 Know ye not, that to whom ye yield yourselves servants to obey, his servants ye are to whom ye obey; whether of sin unto death, or of obedience unto righteousness?

Joh 8:34 Jesus answered them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Whosoever committeth sin is the servant of sin.

Sinners have sold themselves into this state of bondage and their redemption is without money.

Isa_52:3 For thus saith the LORD, Ye have sold yourselves for nought; and ye shall be redeemed without money.

The price paid was the blood of Jesus Christ.

Act 20:28 Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood.

Rev 5:9 And they sung a new song, saying, Thou art worthy to take the book, and to open the seals thereof: for thou wast slain, and hast redeemed us to God by thy blood out of every kindred, and tongue, and people, and nation;

H1350 - Redeemed - gâ'al
A primitive root, to redeem (according to the Oriental law of kinship), that is, to be the next of kin (and as such to buy back a relative’s property, marry his widow, etc.): - X in any wise, X at all, avenger, deliver, (do, perform the part of near, next) kinsfolk (-man), purchase, ransom, redeem (-er), revenger.

It is Jesus Christ that makes us free indeed.

Joh 8:35 And the servant abideth not in the house for ever: but the Son abideth ever.
Joh 8:36 If the Son therefore shall make you free, ye shall be free indeed.

Set free by the blood and by the Spirit of life in Jesus Christ.

Rom 8:2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.

This is why someone who has been TRULY redeemed does not sin. The bondage has been broken. They no longer yield to the passions and desires of their flesh and are thus no longer drawn into sin. They are the Lord's freemen...

1Co 7:22 For he that is called in the Lord, being a servant, is the Lord's freeman: likewise also he that is called, being free, is Christ's servant.
1Co 7:23 Ye are bought with a price; be not ye the servants of men.

Previously being a servant of sin, now (having obeyed from the heart) a servant of righteousness.

Rom 6:17 But God be thanked, that ye were the servants of sin, but ye have obeyed from the heart that form of doctrine which was delivered you.
Rom 6:18 Being then made free from sin, ye became the servants of righteousness.

How does all this actually work?

It works through repentance and faith. One must first be broken on the rock of Christ (Mat 21:44) in order that the old master (Satan) be thrown off through the death of the old man (Rom 6:6) that we may go across to our new master whom is Jesus Christ. Thus we die (our old rebellious self serving man) with Christ that we may live unto God (Rom 14:8).

God sent Jesus to save us from our sins. Jesus did not come to save us in our sins. There is no salvation in sin, there is salvation from sin.

Mat 1:21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.

Redemption from all iniquity and being made pure is the purpose. This is to happen NOW, in this life.

Tit 2:14 Who gave himself for us, that he might redeem us from all iniquity, and purify unto himself a peculiar people, zealous of good works.

It is the pure in heart that will see God.

Mat 5:8 Blessed are the pure in heart: for they shall see God.

It is through the purging of rebellion in repentance, by which we have put to death our former life of rebellion having crucified the flesh with its passions and desires (Gal 5:24), that we can approach God boldly in a new and living way with a true heart in full assurance of faith and have our hearts sprinkled by the blood of Christ.

Heb 10:14 For by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified.
Heb 10:15 Whereof the Holy Ghost also is a witness to us: for after that he had said before,
Heb 10:16 This is the covenant that I will make with them after those days, saith the Lord, I will put my laws into their hearts, and in their minds will I write them;
Heb 10:17 And their sins and iniquities will I remember no more.
Heb 10:18 Now where remission of these is, there is no more offering for sin.
Heb 10:19 Having therefore, brethren, boldness to enter into the holiest by the blood of Jesus,
Heb 10:20 By a new and living way, which he hath consecrated for us, through the veil, that is to say, his flesh;
Heb 10:21 And having an high priest over the house of God;
Heb 10:22 Let us draw near with a true heart in full assurance of faith, having our hearts sprinkled from an evil conscience, and our bodies washed with pure water.

The blood of Jesus Christ purges our consciences of dead works that we may serve God acceptably. Our conscience will no longer bear witness against us for we have been washed and made clean.

Heb 9:14 How much more shall the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without spot to God, purge your conscience from dead works to serve the living God?

Ti 1:5 Now the end of the commandment is charity out of a pure heart, and of a good conscience, and of faith unfeigned:

THE PURPOSE IS PURITY OF HEART





Heart purity is all but denied in the church system today. A false gospel that leaves one in iniquity has supplanted the true Gospel of Jesus Christ. Satan is a master theologian and is very cunning indeed. Leaven has been introduced into the very foundations of Christian orthodoxy which has in turn corrupted practically everything which has been established on top of the faulty foundation.

A common error in the church system is the teaching that one is only set free from condemnation but that the bondage to sin still continues. It is a false message taught by a multitude of false teachers.

The basis of this freedom from condemnation is rooted in that of a fictional legal exchange propery termed Penal Substitution. Salvation is taught as purely forensic in nature. The doctrine of Penal Substitution basically teaches that Jesus swapped track records with the believer. God then punishes Jesus in the stead of the believer and God counts the believer righteous on account of the virtue of Christ.

If being accounted righteous by God was really due to a forensic transfer of the righteousness of Christ to the believer then John would not have written this...

1Jn 3:7 Little children, let no man deceive you: he that doeth righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous.

The reason for this is because a DOING would have absolutely nothing to do with it.

The early Church did not teach anything remotely close to Penal Substitution nor did they teach or even remotely conceive that the righteousness of Jesus is credited to a believers account. These are doctrines of men borne out of the Protestant Reformation.

These false doctrines completely negate being set free from the actual bondage of sin whereby one is able to actually go and sin no more.

True salvation has been subverted by a false notion of a forensic salvation. Hence the false teachers will state that you have an "identity in Christ" whilst you still actually remain a "slave to sin." It is actually not salvation at all but a Satanic deception which keeps people in bondage in order that they will eventually lose their souls.

Don't be deceived! Jesus warned of massive deception and taught that MANY would be deceived by a MULTITUDE of false teachers (Mat 7:15, Mat 24:11-12). Paul warned with tears of the wolves who would come in to deceive the flock (Act 20:29-31). These wolves would appear as ministers of righteousness (2 Cor 11:15). Yet they preach a gospel of death because they deny heart purity and being truly set free from bondage, thus they deny true redemption.

Peter also warned of those who would twist the writings of Paul to their own destruction and lead people away with the error of the wicked (2Pet 3:16-17).

And I am warning you!

Those who have been redeemed by the blood of Christ have also been purified. Thus they no longer have iniquity within the heart. That does not mean they won't fall short due to ignorance. What it does mean is that the all willful sin, which is sin that is rooted in iniquity, has ceased.

We no longer walk after the lusts of the flesh, we are instead led by the Spirit.

Rom 8:13 For if ye live after the flesh, ye shall die: but if ye through the Spirit do mortify the deeds of the body, ye shall live.
Rom 8:14 For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the sons of God.

Joh 1:12 But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name:
Joh 1:13 Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.

1Jn 3:9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.
1Jn 3:10 In this the children of God are manifest, and the children of the devil: whosoever doeth not righteousness is not of God, neither he that loveth not his brother.




God bless.
 
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Nov 26, 2011
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#2
Information on various views of the atonement.

Early Church Views (many of these views are really observations on different aspects of the death and resurrection of Christ and thus do not contradict one another)
Christus Victor - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Ransom theory of atonement - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Recapitulation theory of atonement - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Moral influence theory of atonement - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia (Moral Influence Theory is also often taught in synchronicity with the Governmental View and sometimes with the Penal Substitution View)

Anselmian (Anselm of Cantebury 11th Century)
Satisfaction theory of atonement - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Arminian/Finney (1600's)
Governmental theory of atonement - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Reformation (1600's)
Penal substitution - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
 
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crossnote

Senior Member
Nov 24, 2012
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#3
I see some truth in more than one view but the one that intrigues me most is Christus Victor .
 
Nov 26, 2011
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I see some truth in more than one view but the one that intrigues me most is Christus Victor .
I have found it a fascinating study.

I was always taught and believed in Penal Substitution until was made aware of Church history.

I clearly see Ransom, Christis Victor, Recapitulation and Moral influence as all being true. Although I don't hold to Origen's view of Ransom where he taught that the Ransom was paid to Satan.

I tend to lean towards the ransom being paid to us in the sense that Jesus offered Himself on our behalf so we can reciprocate in identifying with Him. In other words He came to rescue us from our prison cell by breaking us out.

I am still learning about this topic and it is so interesting. I have found that the Bible is not very specific on how the blood actually purges the soul, it just states that that is what it does. I know, from my own experience, that when we come to Christ through repentance and faith our consciences are indeed made clean and we literally meet God in the Spirit. It's kind of like this agreement takes place because we have yielded to His ways in forsaking our own previous ways.

I speculate that one reason that the blood is necessary is because when one sins one has to make restitution for wrong doing. Yet in offending God there is simply no way we can make it right, thus God sent Jesus as a bridging mechanism. Whereby we disassociate ourselves with our old self (the rebellious old man) and associate ourselves with Christ. Thus the old man who earned sins wages (which is death) still dies but because we are IN CHRIST God has given us a reprieve by which we live.

Anyway those are just some of the thoughts which go through my brain as I reflect on these things. I don't claim to really understand it except in relation to what the Scriptures plainly teach which I outlined in my opening post.
 
A

Abiding

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#6
I see some truth in more than one view but the one that intrigues me most is Christus Victor .
except the part about the devil having rights over humanity. that has led to alot of false teachings
other than being under his deceptive powers through our lusts, the devil has no rights but what God
has allowed and purposed IMO
 

zone

Senior Member
Jun 13, 2010
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#7
I don't claim to really understand it except in relation to what the Scriptures plainly teach which I outlined in my opening post.
you most assuredly do claim to understand it.
and you most assuredly do not understand it.

and all that damage done.
 
Jan 19, 2013
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#8
"Ransom" is to buy back, or redeem.

From what were we bought back by Jesus?

What was the payment?

To whom was the payment made?

Why was the transaction considered payment or "buy back"?
 

zone

Senior Member
Jun 13, 2010
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#9
"Ransom" is to buy back, or redeem.

From what were we bought back by Jesus?

What was the payment?

To whom was the payment made?

Why was the transaction considered payment or "buy back"?
he dropped the idea of the ransom being paid to satan.
now he says it was to us.

we sold ourselves, and we use Jesus' merit to be bought back.

catholic.
 
Jan 19, 2013
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#10
he dropped the idea of the ransom being paid to satan.
now he says it was to us.

we sold ourselves, and we use Jesus' merit to be bought back.

catholic.
We sold ourselves to whom?
 

zone

Senior Member
Jun 13, 2010
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#11
We sold ourselves to whom?
I tend to lean towards the ransom being paid to us in the sense that Jesus offered Himself on our behalf so we can reciprocate in identifying with Him. In other words He came to rescue us from our prison cell by breaking us out.


ourselves.
it looks like we sold ourselves to ourselves, since satan was too controversial.
 
Jan 19, 2013
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ourselves.
it looks like we sold ourselves to ourselves, since satan was too controversial.
Has a Biblical "ring" to it:

They measure themselves by themselves and compare themselves with themselves. . .2Co 10:12
 
Jan 19, 2013
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Skinski7 said:
"Ransom" NOT "Penal Substitution"
"Ransom" is to buy back, or redeem.

1) From what were we bought back by Jesus?

2) What was the payment?

3) To whom was the payment made?

4) Why was the transaction considered payment or "buy back"?
Got any answers for the above?

Like you didn't have any answers for the following on Ro 3:25-26?

"God presented Jesus as a sacrifice of propitiation through faith in his blood.

He did this to demonstrate his justice, because in his forbearance he had passed over

(left unpunished) the sins committed beforehand (OT)--he did it to demonstrate his justice

at the present time,so as to be just and the one who justifies." (Ro 3:25-26)

1) What "passed over" the sins committed beforehand (OT)?

2) The "what passed over" consisted precisely of?

3) How did the "what passed over" demonstrate God's justice?

4) For what did Jesus' sacrificial death atone?

5) How does Jesus' sacrificial death atone (make reparation, amends) for it?

6) What is the connection between his atonement and my faith in it (his blood)?

Until you present a consistent and Biblical explanation of the two sets of questions above,

"You are in error because you do not know the Scriptures." (Mt 22:29)

"Go and learn what they mean." (Mt 9:13)
 

crossnote

Senior Member
Nov 24, 2012
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#14
except the part about the devil having rights over humanity. that has led to alot of false teachings
other than being under his deceptive powers through our lusts, the devil has no rights but what God
has allowed and purposed IMO
I don't see it as a ransom paid, but through the Work of Christ he gained victory over satan, sin, world and the flesh. Auden has a good work on CV.
 

crossnote

Senior Member
Nov 24, 2012
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#15
I don't see it as a ransom paid, but through the Work of Christ he gained victory over satan, sin, world and the flesh. Auden has a good work on CV.
sheesh i forgot one of the most important ones He obtained victory over...DEATH.
I wonder if senility is included, hmmm?
 
Nov 26, 2011
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#16
Got any answers for the above?

Like you didn't have any answers for the following on Ro 3:25-26?

"God presented Jesus as a sacrifice of propitiation through faith in his blood.

He did this to demonstrate his justice, because in his forbearance he had passed over

(left unpunished) the sins committed beforehand (OT)--he did it to demonstrate his justice

at the present time,so as to be just and the one who justifies." (Ro 3:25-26)

1) What "passed over" the sins committed beforehand (OT)?

2) The "what passed over" consisted precisely of?

3) How did the "what passed over" demonstrate God's justice?

4) For what did Jesus' sacrificial death atone?

5) How does Jesus' sacrificial death atone (make reparation, amends) for it?

6) What is the connection between his atonement and my faith in it (his blood)?

Until you present a consistent and Biblical explanation of the two sets of questions above,

"You are in error because you do not know the Scriptures." (Mt 22:29)

"Go and learn what they mean." (Mt 9:13)
You'll find the answers to most of your questions in my original post.

Jesus purchased us from the bondage of sin. Israel being set free from slavery in Egypt is a type and shadow of the redemption found in Jesus Christ. Jesus made the payment with His blood. Who was the payment made to? Well the Bible is not specific and that is why there have been different views in history, in a previous post I gave my speculation on it, you can take that as you will. Why was the transaction considered a purchase? Well the Bible clearly teaches that it was a purchase and it also teaches that sinners have sold themselves into the bondage of sin. Perhaps you could liken it a black slave and his master, sinners sell themselves into the dominion of Satan and thus walk in the way of Satan (ie. self-willed rebellion).

I have looked at other Biblical versions of Rom 3:25 and they all clearly allude to "previous sins." I understand you are alluding to it being a reference to the sins past over in the Old Testament, even if that is so it does not say "Future Sins."

Future sins being forgiven in advance completely contradicts the tenet of Scripture. If you are pre-forgiven then that completely negates "repentance for remission." You cannot have "repentance for remission" if the sins have "already been remitted."

Penal Substitution is quite absurd logically. Yet it is a doctrine that does tickle the ears and offer comfort in the midst of rebellion. We can fool ourselves now but we won't be fooling anyone on judgment day.

God passes over our sins on account of the blood just like the angel of death passed over the first born on account of the blood on the doorpost in Egypt. Jesus was out Passover Lamb.

The word "atonement" should read "reconciliation" in the Bible. The word Atonement was invented by William Tyndale because he felt that the word "reconciliation" did not express the nature of Christ's sacrifice sufficiently. Therefore he termed "At Onement" or the bringing together God and man. William Tyndale was heavily influenced by the writings of Martin Luther and thus was a student of reformed thinking.

So what did the death of Christ do? It reconciled humanity to God in a general sense. Basically it opened the door whereby sinners could be reconciled in good standing to God. Paul calls us to be reconciled to God and we access the redemption wrought by Christ through repentance and faith.

It is a genuine meeting up with God where God passes over our previous rebellion and basically gives us a fresh start. There is no reconciliation whilst IN rebellion. The rebellion must cease. It can be likened to an adulterous husband seeking reconciliation with his wife, the adulterous conduct must cease in order for reconciliation to take place. It is man who has transgressed with God, God is the offended party, thus man has to approach God on God's terms in order to be restored to divine favour.

One must have faith in the blood because it is the means by which we approach God. We identify with Christ, we boldly enter in the Holy of Holies as a living sacrifice seeking mercy. If we deny the blood then we cannot enter in.

The atonement is not a forensic judicial exchange. That is 16th century invention of reformed theology. We were ransomed from bondage which means we are set free from bondage. Jesus taught that He can make us free indeed.

Is being the Romans 7 wretch, being carnal and sold under sin free indeed? No it is not.

This is why I was very clear in my first post that the object of the Gospel, the object of the death of Christ it to PURIFY US and to SET US FREE FROM BONDAGE. That is what Bible plainly states. There is no such things as being saved IN sin. We are saved FROM sin.

God's people are holy. God's people are not depraved sinners.
 

zone

Senior Member
Jun 13, 2010
27,214
164
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#17
sheesh i forgot one of the most important ones He obtained victory over...DEATH.
I wonder if senility is included, hmmm?
i dunno.
is senility willful?
 

crossnote

Senior Member
Nov 24, 2012
30,742
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#18
i dunno.
is senility willful?
i was just kiddin having forgotten 'death' as an object of Christ's victory.
...well at least I didn't forget willfully.
I know! It is a residue of the Fall...I think :confused:
 
Jan 19, 2013
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#19
You'll find the answers to most of your questions in my original post.
Please present an overall consistent and Biblical explanation regarding the questions presented to you here.

Jesus purchased us from the bondage of sin.
Purchase means to buy.
For it to be real, as well as consistent, there must be a payee.
Who was it?

the Bible clearly teaches that it was a purchase and it also teaches that sinners have sold themselves into the bondage of sin. Perhaps you could liken it a black slave and his master, sinners sell themselves into the dominion of Satan.
In application of your logic, so how much did the sinners get for the sale?

Actually, the Bible teaches that we are all born in bondage to sin, sold to sin by Adam (Ro 5:12-14).
The wages of sin is death (Ro 6:23).
Sin is transgression of the law (1Jn 3:4).
There was no law to transgress between Adam and Moses, and yet all mankind died (v.14).
Their death means they were guilty of sin (v.12).
But sin is not taken into account when there is no law (v.13).
So what sin were they guilty of that caused their death?

The death of mankind was caused by the transgression of one man, of which transgression
all mankind was held guilty (Ro 5:15), which is why all mankind died even though sin was not
taken into account to cause their death.

All mankind is born in bondage to sin by their descent from Adam, who sold them to sin (Ro 7:14).
Men did not sell themselves into bondage to sin. Mankind inherited their bondage to sin from Adam,
caused by his transgression of the law, "Thou shalt not eat of it."

Therefore, all mankind is by their sinful nature born an object of God's wrath (Eph 2:3).

I have looked at other Biblical versions of Rom 3:25 and they all clearly allude to "previous sins." I understand you are alluding to it being a reference to the sins past over in the Old Testament, even if that is so it does not say "Future Sins."
Agreed.

It says, "to demonstrate God's justice at the present time," which is the NT.

"God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. He did this
to demonstrate his justice. . .at the present time." (Ro 3:25-26).

God, himself, in presenting Jesus as a sacrifice of propitiation, was demonstrating his justice
on the sins of the present time, which is the NT.
However, that satisfaction of God's justice by Jesus on the cross, which then makes it possible
for God to justly forigve sin, is acccessed only by faith in Jesus Christ.
There is no forgiveness of anyone's sin apart from, and until they come to, faith in Jesus Christ.

Penal Substitution is quite absurd logically.
Firstly, you do not correctly understand substitutionary penal atonement.

Secondly, logic is not the arbiter of divine revelation and truth.

God passes over our sins just like the angel of death passed over the first-born in Eqypt.
Agreed.

But your understanding is incomplete. Let's prosecute its meaning.

What passed over the first born?
God's judgment/punishment of death on all the first born in Egypt, including the animals.

So in parallel, what passed over the believrs' sins in the OT?
God's judgment/punishment of eternal death on their sin at the final judgment.

What caused God to pass over the first born Israelites with his judgment/punishment?
The blood of the lamb in Eqypt applied to their door posts.

So in parallel, what caused God to pass over the believers' sins of the OT?
The blood of the Lamb on Calvary, to be shed in the future.

Anb what causes God to pass over the believers' sins in the NT?
The blood of the Lamb on Calvary, already shed in the past.

But for God's judgment to pass over the first born Israelites, the blood of the lamb
not only had to be shed, it also had to be applied to the doorposts.

So how is the blood of the Lamb on Calvary applied to us?
By grace, through faith in Jesus Christ.

So yes, God's judgment passes over our sin because of the blood of the Lamb shed on Calvary,
which is applied to our sin by grace, through faith in Jesus Christ.

The word "atonement" should read "reconciliation" in the Bible.
Not so.

The Greek word hilasterion used in Ro 3:25 means "propitiatory," "satisfaction," "appeasement."
"Reconciliation" is the effect of propitiation, satisfaction, appeasement, it is not propitiation itself.

The word "atonement" should read "propitiation" in the Bible.

So what did the death of Christ do?
It propitiated, satisfied, appeased the justice of God (Ro 3:25-26) on sin,
making it possible for sin to be justly forgiven (cancelled) by God,
which forgiveness comes only through faith in Jesus Christ.

The atonement is not a forensic judicial exchange.
It is exactly that.

Jesus was made a sin offering for us. (2Co 5:21)

Again, your understanding is incomplete. Let's prosecute the meaning of 2Co 5:21.

"Sin offering" refers to the OT sin offering, where the animal was made a sin-bearer
by the offerer transferring his sin to the animal (Lev 1:4, 4:4).

The animal was then slaughtered, taking the death penalty for sin in the sinner's place.

All "penalty" is penal, punishment, judgment.
The punishment for the offerer's sin was taken by the animal in the offerer's place.

Jesus was made a sin bearer (1Pe 2:24) of our sin for us.
Jesus took the death penalty for our sin on the cross in atonement (propitiation, satisfaction,
appeasement) to God's justice.

"God presented Jesus as a sacrifice of atonement. . .to demonstrate his justice in
the sins passed over (OT). . .(and) at the present time." (Ro 3_25-26)


"Penalty" is penal. Jesus' substitutionary atonement was penal.

The atonement was a forensic exhange of our guilt
for Jesus' propitiation, satisfaction, and appeasement of our guilt
by taking the death penalty on our sin in our place.
 
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Jan 19, 2013
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That Jesus died as a ransom, is not "theory," it is Biblical fact (Mt 20:28; 1Tim 2:9; Heb 9:15).

A ransom is payment to redeem from, or to buy back from.

To whom did Jesus pay a ransom?
His ransom was paid to the justice of God, which requires penalty for lawbreaking,
just as our system of justice requires penalty for lawbreaking.

What is the penalty required by the justice of God for lawbreaking?
Lawbreaking is transgression, which is sin (1Jn 3:4).
The wages of sin is death (Ro 6:23, 16, 21).
The penalty required by the justice of God for lawbreaking is death.

What ransom did Jesus pay to God's justice that satisfied, appeased, propitiated that justice?
H
e paid the penalty required for lawbreaking, which is death.
The ransom he paid redeemed, or bought us back from the justice of God which required our death.

How can we be included in this buying back from eternal death by Jesus' ransom payment?
One, and only one, way, by grace through faith in Jesus Christ.

Jesus revelation (Heb 1;1-2), which is the NT, presents his sacrifice as both
ransom (Mt 20:28; 1Tim 2:9; Heb 9:15) and substitutionary penal atonement (Ro 3:25-26).

It's not either/or, it's both/and.