In most bibles 2 Corinthians 5:21 is translated in a way that it makes it look like the sinless lamb of God was made sin.
And an even batter translation
So what 2 Corinthians 5:21 actually says is that Christ became a sin offering on our behalf, and this is why
There is no word for sin offering in either Hebrew or Greek scripture; sin offering is written for sin in Hebrew, and concerning sin (or on behalf of sin) in Greek
So for example, in Leviticus 7:37 in the King James bible, sin offering is written simply as for sin (the brackets around [offering] indicate that the word doesn't exist in the Hebrew text).
περί αμαρτίας (peri amartias) also appears in the NT to refer to sin offerings. For example:
In Romans 8:3, Paul uses this same language to refer to Christ as a sin offering. So this verse makes it clear that Christ was not made sin, but was made in the likeness of sinful flesh to be a sin offering
In the LXX Isaiah 53:10 foretold Christ being a sin offering using the same language
So 2 Corinthians 5:21 says the same thing Romans 8:3 does, ie, Christ was made/sent on behalf of our sin, ie a sin offering, and he knew no sin , but only had the likeness of sinful flesh, ie a son of Adam.
A couple of other things to think about. If Christ had been made sin, he would not have risen from the dead. But realistically, no one can be made sin because sin is not a thing; sins are acts of rebellion that incur guilt, which Christ paid as a substitutionary sin offering
For he hath made him [to be] sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him. 2 Corinthians 5:21
The words [to be] don't exist in the text. So a better translation is:For he hath made him sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him. 2 Corinthians 5:21
It still looks like Christ was made sin; however the words sin for us are υπέρ ημών αμαρτίαν, which mean on behalf of our sin, or concerning our sin. So a better translation is:For he has made him on behalf of our sin, who knew no sin, that we might be made the righteousness of God in him. 2 Corinthians 5:21
And an even batter translation
For he has made him a sin offering for us, who knew no sin, that we might be made the righteousness of God in him. 2 Corinthians 5:21
So what 2 Corinthians 5:21 actually says is that Christ became a sin offering on our behalf, and this is why
There is no word for sin offering in either Hebrew or Greek scripture; sin offering is written for sin in Hebrew, and concerning sin (or on behalf of sin) in Greek
So for example, in Leviticus 7:37 in the King James bible, sin offering is written simply as for sin (the brackets around [offering] indicate that the word doesn't exist in the Hebrew text).
This is the law of the whole burnt-offerings, and of sacrifice, and for sin [offering] and of the trespass [offering], and of the consecration, and of the sacrifice of deliverance [offering], Leviticus 7:37 (KJV)
The LXX version of this verse has for sin (περί αμαρτίας, peri amartias)This [is] the law of the whole-burnt-offerings, and of sacrifice, and for sin (περί αμαρτίας), and for transgression, and of the sacrifice of consecration, and of the sacrifice of peace-offering; Leviticus 7:37 (LXX)
περί αμαρτίας (peri amartias) also appears in the NT to refer to sin offerings. For example:
Therefore entering into the world, he says, Sacrifice and offering you did not want, but a body you readied for me. Whole burnt-offerings and [sacrifices] for sin (περί αμαρτίας) you did not think well of. Hebrews 10:5-6
Wherefore when he cometh into the world, he saith, Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not, but a body hast thou prepared me: In burnt offerings and [sacrifices] for sin (περί αμαρτίας) thou hast had no pleasure. Then said I, Lo, I come (in the volume of the book it is written of me,) to do thy will, O God. Above when he said, Sacrifice and offering and burnt offerings and [offering] for sin (περί αμαρτίας) thou wouldest not, neither hadst pleasure [therein]; which are offered by the law; Hebrews 10:5-8
In Romans 8:3, Paul uses this same language to refer to Christ as a sin offering. So this verse makes it clear that Christ was not made sin, but was made in the likeness of sinful flesh to be a sin offering
For what the law could not do in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin (περί αμαρτίας), judged sin in the flesh: Romans 8:3
Restated for clarity:For what the law could not do in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own son in likeness of sinful flesh and a sin offering, judged sin in the flesh: Romans 8:3
In the LXX Isaiah 53:10 foretold Christ being a sin offering using the same language
The Lord also is pleased to cleanse him from scourging. If you should give for sin (περί αμαρτίας) [offering] your soul, he will see a long-lived seed: Isaiah 53:10
So 2 Corinthians 5:21 says the same thing Romans 8:3 does, ie, Christ was made/sent on behalf of our sin, ie a sin offering, and he knew no sin , but only had the likeness of sinful flesh, ie a son of Adam.
A couple of other things to think about. If Christ had been made sin, he would not have risen from the dead. But realistically, no one can be made sin because sin is not a thing; sins are acts of rebellion that incur guilt, which Christ paid as a substitutionary sin offering
