Creation and the Gap theory (pre adamic race)

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Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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Where do you think darkness used to represent evil and not good came from the first three days?
The text says nothing about physical darkness representing evil. That's your addition, and as such has no value.

Stick with what the text actually says and stop adding to it.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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The text says nothing about physical darkness representing evil. That's your addition, and as such has no value.

Stick with what the text actually says and stop adding to it.
But all throughout Scripture darkness represents evil and unrighteousness, while light represents good and righteousness.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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But all throughout Scripture darkness represents evil and unrighteousness, while light represents good and righteousness.
Where the context is good and evil, yes. Such context is completely absent from Genesis 1.
 

UnoiAmarah

Junior Member
Jul 28, 2017
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He did not call darkness good.
Yes he did, you just don't hear him.

in Genesis 1:5 he called the visible light Day, and the called the Invisible light, Night; the blackness seen in the heaven is not the result of the absence of light but is a result of invisible light being refracted which produces the blackness appearance of the expanse. T

Gen 1:16 And God made two great lights; the greater light to rule the day, and the lesser light to rule the night: he made the stars also.


All you have to do is read Genesis 1:5, he made the two lights when he divided the light from the darkness. You can't divide 1 from 0, zero cannot be divided. So obviously the darkness isn't the absence of anything, and it is know and observed that visible white light is a wave in the electromagnetic spectrum.

Gen 1:17 And God set them in the firmament of the heaven to give light upon the earth,


The two lights that appear in the atmosphere are the visible white light during the day and the invisible light that appears at night. Day and night on earth are the result of the earth's rotation. The rotation is produced by the effects of the electromagnetic band of invisible light upon matter having mass and the visible light.

Gen 1:18 And to rule over the day and over the night, and to divide the light from the darkness: and God saw that it was good.
Gen 1:16-18
 

UnoiAmarah

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Jul 28, 2017
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But all throughout Scripture darkness represents evil and unrighteousness, while light represents good and righteousness.
Then why is it written that Jesus speaks in darkness?

What I tell you in darkness, that speak ye in light: and what ye hear in the ear, that preach ye upon the housetops.
Matt 10:27

So did Paul have faith from reading the Word of God or when he heard the voice of the Son of God without seeing a man? So faith comes by hearing and hearing by the voice of the Son of God, if not then when is the hour is coming and now is? See John 5:25
You are saved by hope.
All throughout creation God was present...and still he said the evening and the morning...
Invisible light was present all thought creation, so what do you see when you see something invisible. So where did darkness come from if God is omnipresent since the scriptures states that God is light?

Darkness is just the absence of light....and it is what it is....go dive into the deepest ocean and all you see is darkness....there is no need to spiritualisr the creation...
That is a good point, visible white light can't pass a solid object of mass but the other the other bands within the invisible light can, take an x ray for example. You are talking about optical darkness which occurs from the lack of visible white light. The darkness in Genesis is referring unto the invisible light.
 
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Hebrews 4:1_7 King James Version (KJV) Let us therefore fear, lest, a promise being left us of entering into his rest, any of you should seem to come short of it. For unto us was the gospel preached, as well as unto them: but the word preached did not profit them, not being mixed with faith in them that heard it. For we which have believed do enter into rest, as he said, As I have sworn in my wrath, if they shall enter into my rest: although the works were finished from the foundation of the world. For he spake in a certain place of the seventh day on this wise, And God did rest the seventh day from all his works. And in this place again, If they shall enter into my rest.
Seeing therefore it remaineth that some must enter therein, and they to whom it was first preached entered not in because of unbelief: Again, he limiteth a certain day, saying in David, To day, after so long a time; as it is said, To day if ye will hear
his voice, harden not your hearts.
I think this is a very important passage in regards to the seventh day. Do I understand it all? Hardly.
What is also important here is Hebrews 4:8-13.

Hebrews 4:8-13 (NIV)
8 For if Joshua had given them rest, God would not have spoken later about another day. 9 There remains, then, a Sabbath-rest for the people of God; 10 for anyone who enters God’s rest also rests from their works,[a] just as God did from his. 11 Let us, therefore, make every effort to enter that rest, so that no one will perish by following their example of disobedience.

12 For the word of God is alive and active. Sharper than any double-edged sword, it penetrates even to dividing soul and spirit, joints and marrow; it judges the thoughts and attitudes of the heart. 13 Nothing in all creation is hidden from God’s sight. Everything is uncovered and laid bare before the eyes of him to whom we must give account.

So here I am spit-balling.
We will never achieve rest by trying to earn heaven through our own works.
In this approach we will never enter God's rest.
If we place our faith in the finished work of God (Christ), and do not rely on our works, then we are now able to enter into God's rest. If we say we have faith but continue to be disobedient, then perhaps this is because we are still trying to find our rest through works and not through God. Thus why we will not enter God's rest.

Christ is our rest. Before Christ, the Sabbath was our rest.
We do not need the sabbath because Christ is now a better rest.

I still can't help but wonder, how can we enter God's rest if his day of rest has ended long ago? Unless of course we are still in the seventh day: the day of God's rest.
 

watcher2013

Senior Member
Aug 6, 2013
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Its a 7 days cycle in a week.
God rested on the 7th day... and such gave an example to his follow to have a rest on the 7 days cycle week.
Christ did rise on the 8th day...its the first day of the week.
Mat 28:1 KJV In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre.
Man i do not know where u got your teaching...but its out of the biblical world...i encourage you to leave this 8th day thing...it is not plausible and biblical...
And we do not need to past the 7th...we entered the rest
I think this is a very important passage in regards to the seventh day. Do I understand it all? Hardly.
What is also important here is Hebrews 4:8-13.

Hebrews 4:8-13 (NIV)
8 For if Joshua had given them rest, God would not have spoken later about another day. 9 There remains, then, a Sabbath-rest for the people of God; 10 for anyone who enters God’s rest also rests from their works,[a] just as God did from his. 11 Let us, therefore, make every effort to enter that rest, so that no one will perish by following their example of disobedience.

12 For the word of God is alive and active. Sharper than any double-edged sword, it penetrates even to dividing soul and spirit, joints and marrow; it judges the thoughts and attitudes of the heart. 13 Nothing in all creation is hidden from God’s sight. Everything is uncovered and laid bare before the eyes of him to whom we must give account.

So here I am spit-balling.
We will never achieve rest by trying to earn heaven through our own works.
In this approach we will never enter God's rest.
If we place our faith in the finished work of God (Christ), and do not rely on our works, then we are now able to enter into God's rest. If we say we have faith but continue to be disobedient, then perhaps this is because we are still trying to find our rest through works and not through God. Thus why we will not enter God's rest.

Christ is our rest. Before Christ, the Sabbath was our rest.
We do not need the sabbath because Christ is now a better rest.

I still can't help but wonder, how can we enter God's rest if his day of rest has ended long ago? Unless of course we are still in the seventh day: the day of God's rest.
Think of this...those evil workers do they now entered also in God rest.
Your problem is differentiation the methaporical to literal.
Does not the verses tlaking about the sabbath we have in Christ?
Even in this it is talking about the sabbath not the eight day.
 

watcher2013

Senior Member
Aug 6, 2013
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Then why is it written that Jesus speaks in darkness?

What I tell you in darkness, that speak ye in light: and what ye hear in the ear, that preach ye upon the housetops.
Matt 10:27

So did Paul have faith from reading the Word of God or when he heard the voice of the Son of God without seeing a man? So faith comes by hearing and hearing by the voice of the Son of God, if not then when is the hour is coming and now is? See John 5:25
You are saved by hope.


Invisible light was present all thought creation, so what do you see when you see something invisible. So where did darkness come from if God is omnipresent since the scriptures states that God is light?



That is a good point, visible white light can't pass a solid object of mass but the other the other bands within the invisible light can, take an x ray for example. You are talking about optical darkness which occurs from the lack of visible white light. The darkness in Genesis is referring unto the invisible light.
Genesis was written to be understood way back when x ray was not invented, where infrared is not even in the dictionary...it was written to be understood even by primitive people.
That is why a comparison is made when two great lights were set...to divide light and darkness.
Gen 1:18 KJV And to rule over the day and over the night, and to divide the light from the darkness: and God saw that it was good.
 

Dino246

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Jun 30, 2015
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in Genesis 1:5 he called the visible light Day, and the called the Invisible light, Night; the blackness seen in the heaven is not the result of the absence of light but is a result of invisible light being refracted which produces the blackness appearance of the expanse. T

Um, no. The blackness is the absence of luminous matter (sun and stars) and of non-luminous reflective matter (planets, moons, etc.). It is not visible in daylight because the sun's light reflects off the atmosphere and appears blue. Space probes above the atmosphere show the background of outer space as blackness.


All you have to do is read Genesis 1:5, he made the two lights when he divided the light from the darkness. You can't divide 1 from 0, zero cannot be divided. So obviously the darkness isn't the absence of anything, and it is know and observed that visible white light is a wave in the electromagnetic spectrum.
White light is indeed part of the electromagnetic spectrum, but your comment about numbers is incorrect. Distinguishing 1 from 0 is not dividing, and it has nothing to do with dividing by zero, which is theoretically possible but can't be represented in digital form.


The two lights that appear in the atmosphere are the visible white light during the day and the invisible light that appears at night. Day and night on earth are the result of the earth's rotation. The rotation is produced by the effects of the electromagnetic band of invisible light upon matter having mass and the visible light.
There is no such thing as "invisible white light". There are bands of the EM spectrum that are not visible to the eye, but those bands are not what constitutes the darkness of night. Further, the earth's rotation is not produced by EM energy. The cause of the earth's rotation is unknown to science, but can be attributed to God as an aspect of His creation.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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Then why is it written that Jesus speaks in darkness?

What I tell you in darkness, that speak ye in light: and what ye hear in the ear, that preach ye upon the housetops.
Matt 10:27
The word "darkness" here does not necessarily mean "nighttime" or "absence of light" but rather privacy.

Invisible light was present all thought creation, so what do you see when you see something invisible. So where did darkness come from if God is omnipresent since the scriptures states that God is light?
So what do you see when you see something invisible? You might want to rethink that question.

Scripture tells us where darkness originated: God divided the light from the darkness. You're implying that because God is light that He must shed light everywhere. That is not necessary. God is not "light" in the sense that He is a band of the EM spectrum.
 

UnoiAmarah

Junior Member
Jul 28, 2017
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Um, no. The blackness is the absence of luminous matter (sun and stars) and of non-luminous reflective matter (planets, moons, etc.). It is not visible in daylight because the sun's light reflects off the atmosphere and appears blue. Space probes above the atmosphere show the background of outer space as blackness.
To start with, did you make up that term 'non-luminous reflective matter' since 'non-luminous matter' is called dark matter is silly in itself but then to say 'non-luminous reflective matter' is over the top. I know what you are trying to say which is basically that the heaven appears black because there is no matter with mass to reflect the light.

If your what suggest is true then the blackness of the deeps of the ocean is because there is no luminous matter or that non-luminous reflective matter. That is not true, the ocean is a body of water so the same particles of water that are found on the surface are found at the bottom so the explanation that the blackness of the deep is because there is no matter doesn't hold up.

All matter having mass absorbs light based upon the state and type of element it is composed of, the appearance of color is the result of the several factors. If light was reflected off the earth's atmosphere then how does it light up the ground, it isn't reflected so to speak.

White light is indeed part of the electromagnetic spectrum, but your comment about numbers is incorrect. Distinguishing 1 from 0 is not dividing, and it has nothing to do with dividing by zero, which is theoretically possible but can't be represented in digital form.
If you think you can divide 1 from nothing then what can I say except that you are obviously a believer since anything is possible with a believer, but that is the reason it can't be represented in digital form, it is imaginary. If darkness is the absence of light, which would amount to being nothing,therefore if nothing then there would be nothing to for the visible light to be divided from.

There is no such thing as "invisible white light".
Where in that comment you cited did I use the reference invisible white light.
The two lights that appear in the atmosphere are the visible white light during the day and the invisible light that appears at night. Day and night on earth are the result of the earth's rotation. The rotation is produced by the effects of the electromagnetic band of invisible light upon matter having mass and the visible light.
so I am not sure what the point of your comment is.

There are bands of the EM spectrum that are not visible to the eye, but those bands are not what constitutes the darkness of night. Further, the earth's rotation is not produced by EM energy. The cause of the earth's rotation is unknown to science, but can be attributed to God as an aspect of His creation.
Since you think that the earth's rotation can attributed to God since science doesn't know the answer better explains your statements. If you think only science can reveal the secrets things of the LORD then you obviously forgot someone in that equation.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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To start with, did you make up that term 'non-luminous reflective matter' since 'non-luminous matter' is called dark matter is silly in itself but then to say 'non-luminous reflective matter' is over the top. I know what you are trying to say which is basically that the heaven appears black because there is no matter with mass to reflect the light.

Non-luminous reflective matter: matter that does not produce light of itself but reflects light produced by other bodies; ie. the moon. Yes, I made up the term, and no, it's not the same as dark matter. There is not adequate matter to reflect the light. That is distinctly different from "no matter".


If your what suggest is true then the blackness of the deeps of the ocean is because there is no luminous matter or that non-luminous reflective matter. That is not true, the ocean is a body of water so the same particles of water that are found on the surface are found at the bottom so the explanation that the blackness of the deep is because there is no matter doesn't hold up.
Incorrect, and a logical fallacy. The cause of darkness in one location is not necessarily the cause of darkness in another.


All matter having mass absorbs light based upon the state and type of element it is composed of, the appearance of color is the result of the several factors. If light was reflected off the earth's atmosphere then how does it light up the ground, it isn't reflected so to speak.

It IS reflected off the atmosphere, and bounces around, and reaches the earth's surface.

If you think you can divide 1 from nothing then what can I say except that you are obviously a believer since anything is possible with a believer, but that is the reason it can't be represented in digital form, it is imaginary. If darkness is the absence of light, which would amount to being nothing,therefore if nothing then there would be nothing to for the visible light to be divided from.

Your phrase, "divide 1 from nothing" is meaningless in a mathematical sense, and your assertion that darkness is nothing is silly.


Where in that comment you cited did I use the reference invisible white light.
so I am not sure what the point of your comment is.

Sorry, I misread your post.


Since you think that the earth's rotation can attributed to God since science doesn't know the answer better explains your statements. If you think only science can reveal the secrets things of the LORD then you obviously forgot someone in that equation.
God created the earth; He set it in motion. There is no scientifically consistent theory for the origin of the solar system. Scientists have guesses, not answers.

Where did you get the idea that I think that "only science can reveal the secret things of the Lord"?
 

UnoiAmarah

Junior Member
Jul 28, 2017
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Still nonsensical.

"Invisible" means "cannot be seen".
So you what you are saying is the anything which is invisible that is seen is nonsense, especially if that which is invisible is claims to be the same yesterday, today and ever more.

Well until confronted with the verse in Colossians which describes the Son of God being the image of the invisible God.
 

PS

Senior Member
Jan 11, 2013
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And God called the light Day, and the darkness he called Night. And the evening and the morning were the first day (yome). (Gen 1:5 KJV)

The Hebrew word for day is yome. It means forever.

In Psalm 23v6 we read, Surely goodness and mercy shall follow me all the days of my life: and I will dwell in the house of the LORD forever (yome)

When we read the creation account in Genesis and we come to the word "day" we need to think "yome" which means "forever."

The earth is still expanding and although we cannot see it from our tiny planet, the earth will continue to grow and expand forever.

It is our mistake for thinking yome always means 24 hours. In common parlance it does, but with regard to creation the word yome means forever or eternally.
 

PS

Senior Member
Jan 11, 2013
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Translation

"So never be afraid of them, because there is nothing hidden that will not be revealed, and nothing secret that will not be made known. What I tell you in private you must speak in public, and what is whispered in your ear you must shout from the housetops. (Mat 10:26-27)
 

garee

Senior Member
Mar 28, 2016
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I think this is a very important passage in regards to the seventh day. Do I understand it all? Hardly.
What is also important here is Hebrews 4:8-13.

Hebrews 4:8-13 (NIV)
8 For if Joshua had given them rest, God would not have spoken later about another day. 9 There remains, then, a Sabbath-rest for the people of God; 10 for anyone who enters God’s rest also rests from their works,[a] just as God did from his. 11 Let us, therefore, make every effort to enter that rest, so that no one will perish by following their example of disobedience.

12 For the word of God is alive and active. Sharper than any double-edged sword, it penetrates even to dividing soul and spirit, joints and marrow; it judges the thoughts and attitudes of the heart. 13 Nothing in all creation is hidden from God’s sight. Everything is uncovered and laid bare before the eyes of him to whom we must give account.

So here I am spit-balling.
We will never achieve rest by trying to earn heaven through our own works.
In this approach we will never enter God's rest.
If we place our faith in the finished work of God (Christ), and do not rely on our works, then we are now able to enter into God's rest. If we say we have faith but continue to be disobedient, ethen perhaps this is because we are still trying to find our rest through works and not through God. Thus why we will not enter God's rest.

Christ is our rest. Before Christ, the Sabbath was our rest.
We do not need the sabbath because Christ is now a better rest.

I still can't help but wonder, how can we enter God's rest if his day of rest has ended long ago? Unless of course we are still in the seventh day: the day of God's rest.
I would offer. He is still resting from all his work . We are seeing it unfold by faith

We enter His rest by believing the living abiding words of our unseen God who works in us as a labor of love or called a work of His faith . Called mixing faith in verse 2.

If there is no actual hearing of His word and therefore faith as a gift to us as a result of Him working in us both to will and do his good pleasure then our faithless hearts reman hard .Hearing or seeing but not believing God shows a person heart remains hard.

The rest is any time we mix faith. (hearing and believing) .Again not just hearing or tasting..Abel experienced that work of God working in him.

The rest is reckoned from the foundation. The 6 days when he was working. . Remember the lamb of God was slain from before the 7th day . Outwardly demonstrated thousands of years later at the cross.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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So you what you are saying is the anything which is invisible that is seen is nonsense, especially if that which is invisible is claims to be the same yesterday, today and ever more.

Well until confronted with the verse in Colossians which describes the Son of God being the image of the invisible God.
Fallacy: equivocation. The discussion is the created realm, not the nature of the Creator. Don't muddy the waters.