But that still lacks the slightest confirmation from Peter saying the same thing. You do realize saying the Spirit who spoke through all three at the time has called the OP refs. off because of John's Revelation?
No, I do not realize any such thing because you are not presenting your alleged proof texts (1 Pet. 1:8, 1 John 4:20) in their proper contexts. I will take a moment to do that now.
1Pe 1:1
Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia,
1Pe 1:2
Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied.
1Pe 1:3
Blessed
be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, which according to his abundant mercy hath begotten us again unto a lively hope by the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead,
1Pe 1:4
To an inheritance incorruptible, and undefiled, and that fadeth not away, reserved in heaven for you,
1Pe 1:5
Who are kept by the power of God through faith unto salvation ready to be revealed in the last time.
1Pe 1:6
Wherein ye greatly rejoice, though now for a season, if need be, ye are in heaviness through manifold temptations:
1Pe 1:7
That the trial of your faith, being much more precious than of gold that perisheth, though it be tried with fire, might be found unto praise and honour and glory at the appearing of Jesus Christ:
1Pe 1:8
Whom having not seen, ye love; in whom, though now ye see
him not, yet believing, ye rejoice with joy unspeakable and full of glory:
1Pe 1:9
Receiving the end of your faith,
even the salvation of
your souls.
When Peter said "whom having not seen, ye love," who were the "ye" that he was addressing? In context, the "ye" were "the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia." In other words, Peter was addressing a specific group of people, and in no way was he even suggesting that no one would ever see the Lord again.
1Jo 4:20
If a man say, I love God, and hateth his brother, he is a liar: for he that loveth not his brother whom he hath seen, how can he love
God whom he hath not seen?
Here, in context, John was talking about how nobody had seen God the Father up until that point in time, or he was reiterating what he had said here.
1Jo 4:12
No man hath seen God at any time. If we love one another, God dwelleth in us, and his love is perfected in us.
In context, John was saying how no man had seen God the Father up until that point in time, and he did not utter a single word about how no man had seen Jesus Christ. Previously, Jesus Christ had said the same exact thing, and John is the one who recorded it in his gospel.
Jhn 1:18
No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared
him.
Furthermore, this same John did apparently see God the Father after he penned his first epistle. When "a door was opened in heaven" (Rev. 4:1), and when John was told to "Come up hither" (Rev. 4:1), this is part of what John saw while in heaven.
Rev 4:2
And immediately I was in the spirit: and, behold, a throne was set in heaven, and
one sat on the throne.
Rev 4:3
And he that sat was to look upon like a jasper and a sardine stone: and
there was a rainbow round about the throne, in sight like unto an emerald.
Who did John see sitting upon this throne in heaven? We gain further insight into this by simply continuing to read.
Rev 5:1
And I saw in the right hand of him that sat on the throne a book written within and on the backside, sealed with seven seals.
Rev 5:2
And I saw a strong angel proclaiming with a loud voice, Who is worthy to open the book, and to loose the seals thereof?
Rev 5:3
And no man in heaven, nor in earth, neither under the earth, was able to open the book, neither to look thereon.
Rev 5:4
And I wept much, because no man was found worthy to open and to read the book, neither to look thereon.
Rev 5:5
And one of the elders saith unto me, Weep not: behold, the Lion of the tribe of Juda, the Root of David, hath prevailed to open the book, and to loose the seven seals thereof.
Rev 5:6
And I beheld, and, lo, in the midst of the throne and of the four beasts, and in the midst of the elders, stood a Lamb as it had been slain, having seven horns and seven eyes, which are the seven Spirits of God sent forth into all the earth.
Rev 5:7
And he came and took the book out of the right hand of him that sat upon the throne.
Here, John saw the risen Christ take a sealed book out of God the Father's hand in order to loose the seals thereof, or in order to open and read the book. In fact, this is what the book of Revelation is all about.
Rev 1:1
The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to shew unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified
it by his angel unto his servant John:
Rev 1:2
Who bare record of the word of God, and of the testimony of Jesus Christ, and of all things that he saw.
After his resurrection, ascension, and glorification, Jesus was given revelation (hence the name of the book) from God the Father which he did not have during his incarnation, and he received the same by opening the previously sealed book which he took out of God the Father's hand.
Btw, what we just read is internal evidence that the book of Revelation was written after the first epistle of John. In his first epistle, John said that "no man hath seen God at any time" (1 John 4:12), and John later saw God as we just witnessed from what he penned in the book of Revelation.
Anyhow, my point is this:
Neither of your two alleged proof texts (1 Pet. 1:8, 1 John 4:20) say what you alleged that they say in your OP, and, hopefully, you now recognize the same.