Husband is jailed for life. Can the wife marry another man?

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Mii

Well-known member
Mar 23, 2019
2,082
1,330
113
#41
Will the op @User46952 interact further? It's always nice and reassures people that this isn't someone trolling with hypothetical what if scenarios. At least include "why" the question.

Like: "This is causing my much consternation (hypothetical) because it seems like a valid reason and yet is unscriptural..." or some such.


To answer the question as a hypothetical there isn't a whole lot of heart I can put into it. Especially not without a sentence. An actual life sentence? No parole, no commutation, no pardon, nothing? Almost unheard of except in murders.

Sentences get commuted all the time. Pardons are a thing too. Conjugal visits are also an option. Visitation can be quite frequent in most instances.

For whatever reason this is reminding me of being a military spouse during active duty. Suppose a husband or wife's sense of duty effectively "imprisons" them for a lifetime of service. Similar in a way if you think about it but I digress.
 

Mii

Well-known member
Mar 23, 2019
2,082
1,330
113
#42
Loosely from what I found. 55,000/331,000,000 people are serving life sentences without parole.

That's like a 1/6k chance? Assuming all are married.

Statistics are only so valuable but the NCHS has 2.1m (ish) marriages recorded (no idea if extrapolation is employed).

so that's 4,200,000 million people involved in the U.S presumably.

so 331m/4.2m then that number divided by 55k = 705 then that equals a 1/470k chance? Not quite powerball numbers at least.

For me this seems not worth focusing on (though I have for the past 20 minutes lol) but if such a person does ever post I would certainly be willing to give more attention to it sincerely.

Also. If someone would be willing to check my math that'd be nice :p
 
Aug 14, 2019
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#43
The thing is, imprisonment doesn't change anything concerning the marital bond.
If it formed then if one goes to prison the other is bound to a prisoner. If for life for life then. A valuable witness for God and marriage is placed in front of them especially the free one.
 

Lanolin

Well-known member
Dec 15, 2018
23,460
7,188
113
#44
most wives actually do not live alone if the husband is in jail. If they have children they are obviously busy looking after children or they live with their parents or other family members.

You need to obtain a divorce if you want to marry someone else, you cant marry two people at once. I think in most countries, thats the law. It doesnt matter how old or young then person is (except must be over 18, if its younger, you need parental consent)

The bible has guidelines regarding marriage in order to protect families, but often peoole just plain didnt follow them. I mean why did Jacob marry two wives at the same time. Thats just asking for trouble.
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
13,067
4,349
113
#46
I suggest a further study of the Greek and Hebrew on this topic, it’s clear by your responses you have not done so. Furthermore, responding to one who clearly has with allegations of manipulation is folly and makes evident the desire of your heart is to be “right” rather than know the truth.
Yes I did provide a red X it means I disagree with your point. If you are an ultra sensitive I will remove it but I disagree with your point here none the less. I think you have misjudged the person you are speaking bout so provide your Greek violations of the Greek, so we can determine if you even know the greek

Thank you.
 
Jul 11, 2020
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#48
"Scribe, posted

]And yet for those women who do choose to divorce and remarry and have lots of kids with someone else that is also a happy story. No woman should be made to feel that she took an easy out by divorcing when fornication is involved. They should not be pressured into thinking that forgiveness and taking the partner back is the "best" choice in God's eyes. I don't think that can be proven theologically. It may often be best to not take such a partner back. What does God think?[/QUOTE]

It is a very narrow road. No easy way out. That is why very few find it....
 

NOV25

Well-known member
Nov 23, 2019
977
386
63
#49
Yes I did provide a red X it means I disagree with your point. If you are an ultra sensitive I will remove it but I disagree with your point here none the less. I think you have misjudged the person you are speaking bout so provide your Greek violations of the Greek, so we can determine if you even know the greek

Thank you.
Apostasion: Divorce, Divorcement, writing of divorcement. Used 3 times in the NT, not once by Jesus.
Apoluo: release, put away, send away, dismiss. Used 89 times in the NT, this is the word Jesus used on all occasions.
Think Jesus knew the difference?

Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife?
What did Moses command you?
Moses permitted us to write a bill of divorce and to put her away.
Whosoever shall put away his wife and marry another commits adultery against her.

Let it marinate while you download a concordance, they're free.
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
13,067
4,349
113
#50
Apostasion: Divorce, Divorcement, writing of divorcement. Used 3 times in the NT, not once by Jesus.
Apoluo: release, put away, send away, dismiss. Used 89 times in the NT, this is the word Jesus used on all occasions.
Think Jesus knew the difference?

Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife?
What did Moses command you?
Moses permitted us to write a bill of divorce and to put her away.
Whosoever shall put away his wife and marry another commits adultery against her.

Let it marinate while you download a concordance, they're free.
I have one and I had before google and the internet Thank you,
 
Oct 16, 2020
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#51
A wife is bound to her husband as long as he lives. But if her husband dies, she is free to be married to whom she wishes, only in the Lord. 1 Cor 7:39
...and if she divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery.” Mark 10:12
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
13,067
4,349
113
#52
Matthew 19:7-9
7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?

8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.

9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.

The term put away does not mean divorce.
Apoluo: Put away. Used 89 times in the NT, not once as divorce.
Apostasion: Divorce, divorce certificate. Used 3 times in the NT, not once by Jesus.

In ancient times the pharisees would put away their wives for reasons other than fornication, without a divorce certificate. Why would the pharisees do this?
1. The ketubah (sort of like a prenuptial agreement) was only payable to the wife if she had the divorce certificate in hand.
2. Without the divorce certificate the woman wasn't able to remarry so the pharisee could take her back and still be within the Deut. 24 law.

Jesus is telling the pharisees their manipulation of the law, the putting away and marrying another for reasons other than fornication, will be judged as adultery.
Matthew 19:3

The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause?

The purpose of the question was deceptive from the beginning. as we read in verse 3. The word lawful is conjunction used to connect a clause. Jesus is setting predicate in context to the assertion given by the Pharisees.
"lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause?"


We know this because it states in verse four Jesus says: " have you not read"
which Jesus is saying anaginosko = to distinguish between, to recognise, to know accurately, to acknowledge

Jesus did not quote the law of Moses by reaffirmed what God said in Genesis 2:24, this is why he said
in verse eight of chapter 19 " From the beginning it was not so"


Jesus clearly provided the context and exactly what He was meaning in these verses. I agree with you that Jesus is raising the standard from what the pharisees took as law of Moses for divorce that God never agreed with. The Context of God on Marriage is HE hates divorce.
Jesus in verses 4-6 is quoting Gen 2:24. How do we know this? as it was stated "IT was not so from the beginning".

The pharisees then asked why did Moses command to give a written divorcement ?

Here it is " because of the hardness of your hearts".
Then Jesus says something very important

in verse nine:

"I say into you". LEGO! = affirm over, maintain or I will put this issue to rest.

"whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery.”

Jesus is the Originalist of the word because HE is the word. Therefore Jesus spoke what was the original reason for marriage which is stated in genesis 2:24
God is for your marriage and HE supports it. One who has a husband in jail and married I would tell them God is for your marriage !!!!
trust HIM just as HE did not divorce US so should we not end our marriages based on the hardness of our hearts.
 
May 31, 2020
1,706
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#53
Husband is sentenced to 'life imprisonment'. Can the wife marry another man?
Bible does not allow a woman to marry another man while husband is still alive.
If so, should the wife live alone rest of her life while she is still young?
Two words: conjugal visits.
Now back to reality.
 

NOV25

Well-known member
Nov 23, 2019
977
386
63
#54
I agree with you that Jesus is raising the standard from what the pharisees took as law of Moses for divorce that God never agreed with.
Would you clarify this statement?
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
13,067
4,349
113
#55
Would you clarify this statement?
I will surely try. :).

When we read in matthew 19 would you agree the pharisees were deceptive? y/n

Did Jesus quote Genesis 2:24 or was HE quoting from Deuteronomy chapter 24 ?

what did Jesus mean when HE said " it was not so from the beginning?


in chapter 19:9 says "I say unto you " Jesus is asserting HIS Authority " and raising the perceived standard of the law that the pharisees have improperly used for their own perversion. Jesus leave no doubt.

and said to them

"And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery.”

This was such powerful statement even the disciples said in verse 10
“If such is the case of the man with his wife, it is better not to marry.”



Jesus respond with " But He said to them, “All cannot accept this saying, but only those to whom it has been given"

as we read Deuteronomy chapter 24

it says : When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her:

"no favour in his eyes " is not adultery or unfaithfulness no favour means = no grace or elegance or acceptance. The uncleanness also means nakedness which could mean the man in laymen terms he was not sexually satisfied with her or liked how she looked.

The Bill given would keep her from being stoned and she would be permitted to remarry.

Jesus speaking in Matthew 19:9

I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery.” NIV

Jesus removed the loop hole, and the disciples understood that because they said “If such is the case of the man with his wife, it is better not to marry.” NKJV verse 10

Therefore Jesus raised and returned the context of marriage as it was to be FROM the beginning found in Genesis 2:24. And The Lord placed a serious reason for divorce which would not be because one has no desire for her or feels she is inelegance as it was used because of the hardness of ones heart.
 

NOV25

Well-known member
Nov 23, 2019
977
386
63
#56
I will surely try. :).

When we read in matthew 19 would you agree the pharisees were deceptive? y/n

Did Jesus quote Genesis 2:24 or was HE quoting from Deuteronomy chapter 24 ?

what did Jesus mean when HE said " it was not so from the beginning?


in chapter 19:9 says "I say unto you " Jesus is asserting HIS Authority " and raising the perceived standard of the law that the pharisees have improperly used for their own perversion. Jesus leave no doubt.

and said to them

"And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery.”

This was such powerful statement even the disciples said in verse 10
“If such is the case of the man with his wife, it is better not to marry.”



Jesus respond with " But He said to them, “All cannot accept this saying, but only those to whom it has been given"

as we read Deuteronomy chapter 24

it says : When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her:

"no favour in his eyes " is not adultery or unfaithfulness no favour means = no grace or elegance or acceptance. The uncleanness also means nakedness which could mean the man in laymen terms he was not sexually satisfied with her or liked how she looked.

The Bill given would keep her from being stoned and she would be permitted to remarry.

Jesus speaking in Matthew 19:9

I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery.” NIV

Jesus removed the loop hole, and the disciples understood that because they said “If such is the case of the man with his wife, it is better not to marry.” NKJV verse 10

Therefore Jesus raised and returned the context of marriage as it was to be FROM the beginning found in Genesis 2:24. And The Lord placed a serious reason for divorce which would not be because one has no desire for her or feels she is inelegance as it was used because of the hardness of ones heart.
So you think when Jesus says, Moses permitted you because of the hardness of your heart but from the beginning it was not so, he means Moses made a law without his permission and it found it’s way into the torah via Deuteronomy 24:1-4?
You realize how silly that sounds don’t you?

Jesus is in fact saying, the law given to Moses via Deuteronomy 24:1-4 was given because of the fall, the hardness of heart. Provision was made and guidelines were set for divorce in Deuteronomy 24:1-4 and as we look to Luke 16:17 we see Jesus saying it is easier for heaven an earth the pass away than for one dot of the law to become void but in the very next verse, according to the ESV, he voids the Deut. 24 law. Hmm, this should be a red flag.

"Everyone who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery, and he who marries a woman divorced from her husband commits adultery. - Luke 16:18 ESV

UNLESS, Apoluo does not mean divorce and Jesus was merely addressing the Pharisees manipulation of the law by putting away without divorcing and marrying another, thus being guilty of adultery and forcing her to commit adultery as well as the man she marries.

This is not complicated, trust me your issue lies with the Greek.
Once you understand the difference between apoluo and apostasion everything falls into place from Matthew 5, Matthew 19, Mark 10, Luke 16 and 1 Corinthians.

1 Corinthians 7:27-28 Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife. But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned...

Wait a minute, according to you, Jesus says everyone who divorces and remarries is guilty of adultery but Paul is saying it’s not a sin to remarry... This should be another red flag for you.

Check the Greek on Paul’s verses here. There’s two different words used that are translated loosed.
1. Lusis: from a loosening that is specifically divorce.
Used ONE time in the New Testament.
2. Luo: loose, break, dissolve break up. From the root word apoluo, used 46 times in the NT, in this context means separated, or broken up.

As we know in first Corinthians here Paul is speaking to Gentiles who obviously didn’t follow the law in anything they did, including marriage and divorce. So Paul is saying, if you come to a saving faith in Christ while you are married seek not a divorce. Are you separated, don’t know where your wife is, remain as you are but if you marry it is not a sin.

Don’t you understand, if luo or apoluo means divorce as you think it does then according to you Paul is contradicting Jesus. Are you divorced from a wife seek not a wife but if you do it is not a sin...

People get so twisted because of these bad translations, go to the KJV you’ll notice in all the verses they use the term put away, they did that for a reason.
Why? Because Jesus never use the word
apostasion: divorce
He used the word apoluo: put away and I’m inclined to think he knew the difference.
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
13,067
4,349
113
#57
So you think when Jesus says, Moses permitted you because of the hardness of your heart but from the beginning it was not so, he means Moses made a law without his permission and it found it’s way into the torah via Deuteronomy 24:1-4?
You realize how silly that sounds don’t you?

Jesus is in fact saying, the law given to Moses via Deuteronomy 24:1-4 was given because of the fall, the hardness of heart. Provision was made and guidelines were set for divorce in Deuteronomy 24:1-4 and as we look to Luke 16:17 we see Jesus saying it is easier for heaven an earth the pass away than for one dot of the law to become void but in the very next verse, according to the ESV, he voids the Deut. 24 law. Hmm, this should be a red flag.

"Everyone who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery, and he who marries a woman divorced from her husband commits adultery. - Luke 16:18 ESV

UNLESS, Apoluo does not mean divorce and Jesus was merely addressing the Pharisees manipulation of the law by putting away without divorcing and marrying another, thus being guilty of adultery and forcing her to commit adultery as well as the man she marries.

This is not complicated, trust me your issue lies with the Greek.
Once you understand the difference between apoluo and apostasion everything falls into place from Matthew 5, Matthew 19, Mark 10, Luke 16 and 1 Corinthians.

1 Corinthians 7:27-28 Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife. But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned...

Wait a minute, according to you, Jesus says everyone who divorces and remarries is guilty of adultery but Paul is saying it’s not a sin to remarry... This should be another red flag for you.

Check the Greek on Paul’s verses here. There’s two different words used that are translated loosed.
1. Lusis: from a loosening that is specifically divorce.
Used ONE time in the New Testament.
2. Luo: loose, break, dissolve break up. From the root word apoluo, used 46 times in the NT, in this context means separated, or broken up.

As we know in first Corinthians here Paul is speaking to Gentiles who obviously didn’t follow the law in anything they did, including marriage and divorce. So Paul is saying, if you come to a saving faith in Christ while you are married seek not a divorce. Are you separated, don’t know where your wife is, remain as you are but if you marry it is not a sin.

Don’t you understand, if luo or apoluo means divorce as you think it does then according to you Paul is contradicting Jesus. Are you divorced from a wife seek not a wife but if you do it is not a sin...

People get so twisted because of these bad translations, go to the KJV you’ll notice in all the verses they use the term put away, they did that for a reason.
Why? Because Jesus never use the word
apostasion: divorce
He used the word apoluo: put away and I’m inclined to think he knew the difference.
if you are going to insult people who show you respect it just makes you a jerk.

I will not allow you to do such things to me or other. Be foolish all you would like, and your arrogance is most taxing. I will not have a discussion with you on any topic because you are a rude Buffoon.

we're done.
 
T

TheIndianGirl

Guest
#58
If a person divorces and remarries, and it is considered adultery, what should be done to rectify this sin? Should the person divorce the person to whom he is currently married and has children, and go back to the previous spouse?
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
13,067
4,349
113
#59
If a person divorces and remarries, and it is considered adultery, what should be done to rectify this sin? Should the person divorce the person to whom he is currently married and has children, and go back to the previous spouse?
repent try to reconcile if not move on
 

NOV25

Well-known member
Nov 23, 2019
977
386
63
#60
If a person divorces and remarries, and it is considered adultery, what should be done to rectify this sin? Should the person divorce the person to whom he is currently married and has children, and go back to the previous spouse?
Divorce and remarriage is not a sin according to Deuteronomy 24:1-4 and as we'd expect there is nothing in the NT that contradicts the law given to Moses.