Is all 66 Books Bible the infallible, inerrant Word of God?

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Is all 66 Books Bible the infallible, inerrant Word of God?

  • Total voters
    24
Endoscopy

Endoscopy

Senior Member
#101
Oct 13, 2017
4,028
400
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#101
lightbearer said:
OK.....This issue is in almost all translations including the KJV.

Joh_3:15 That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal life.
Joh_3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
Joh_11:25 Jesus said unto her, I am the resurrection, and the life: he that believeth in me, though he were dead, yet shall he live:
Joh_11:26 And whosoever liveth and believeth in me shall never die. Believest thou this?
Act_10:43 To him give all the prophets witness, that through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins.

In each one of these text "in" should be translated into or to. Preferably "into" as found here, "For God so loved the world that He gave
His only begotten Son, that everyone believing into Him should not perish, but have everlasting life."

(Joh 3:16 LITV-TSP)

To say we believe in Christ is not the same as to say we believe into or to Christ.

Here is the citation from Mickelson's Strong's enhanced in reference to the word in question:
G1519 εἰς eis (eis) prep.
1. to or into (indicating the point reached or entered), of place, time
2. (figuratively) to or into a purpose (result, etc.)

This next one which has been translated "believeth in" in the KJV and similarly in most all other translations new and old is also an issue much greater than the issues to which you speak.

Rom_3:26 To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.

It should actually look something like these....

for the showing forth of His righteousness in the present time, for His being just and justifying the one that is of the faith of Jesus.
(Rom 3:26 LITV-TSP)
toward the display of His righteousness in the current era, for Him to be just and a Justifier of the one who is of the faith of Jesus."
(Rom 3:26 CLV)

The word translated "in" in the clause "beleive in" is ek in the Greek. Here is another citation from Mickelson. This why it should be of not in.

G1537 ἐκ ek (ek) (or ex ex) prep.
1. from (the point whence action or motion proceeds)
2. out (of place, time, or cause)


As you can see I chose an issue that is in most translations. None are perfect and all require for us to dig deep through GOD's Spirit and pray for HIS discernment.
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I suggest you first look up the definition of into. The concept doesn't fit. It means a physical action.
 
L

Locoponydirtman

Guest
#102
#102
John146 said:
As preserved by God in the King James Bible? Yes.
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Because God hates everyone who don't speak english, and Jesus gave his sermon on the mount in English, and King James was God's other begotten son.

And 🦄 unicorns
 
L

Locoponydirtman

Guest
#103
#103
As for the original post;
If it's not, there is no hope.
 
J

John146

Senior Member
#104
Jan 13, 2016
17,109
3,686
113
#104
Locoponydirtman said:
Because God hates everyone who don't speak english, and Jesus gave his sermon on the mount in English, and King James was God's other begotten son.
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Your hate attitude doesn’t make sense. Did not God give His “originals” in a specific language? Does that mean God hates all other people? Of course not.

In what language did Jesus speak His sermon on the mount? Does that mean Jesus hates all others?
 
L

Locoponydirtman

Guest
#105
#105
John146 said:
Your hate attitude doesn’t make sense. Did not God give His “originals” in a specific language? Does that mean God hates all other people? Of course not.

In what language did Jesus speak His sermon on the mount? Does that mean Jesus hates all others?
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So you mean that God may have preserved his word in a German Bible, or even a Chinese translation?
 
Hevosmies

Hevosmies

Well-known member
#109
Sep 8, 2018
3,612
2,633
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#109
“If we do not love the Bible, we certainly do not love the God who gave it to us; but if we do love God, then no other book in the entire world will be comparable in our minds. When God speaks, it is the delight of our ears to hear what he says. In other books there is some truth and some error. Apart from the Bible, the best book ever written has mistakes in it. It is not possible for fallible men to write infallible books. Somehow or other we either say more than is true or less than is true. The most skillful writer does not always keep along that hairline of truth that is more difficult to tread than a razor's edge. But Scripture never errs.”
- C.H. Spurgeon
 
J

John146

Senior Member
#110
Jan 13, 2016
17,109
3,686
113
#110
Hevosmies said:
“If we do not love the Bible, we certainly do not love the God who gave it to us; but if we do love God, then no other book in the entire world will be comparable in our minds. When God speaks, it is the delight of our ears to hear what he says. In other books there is some truth and some error. Apart from the Bible, the best book ever written has mistakes in it. It is not possible for fallible men to write infallible books. Somehow or other we either say more than is true or less than is true. The most skillful writer does not always keep along that hairline of truth that is more difficult to tread than a razor's edge. But Scripture never errs.”
- C.H. Spurgeon
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And yet, there are many on here who love correcting it...just saying.
 
Endoscopy

Endoscopy

Senior Member
#116
Oct 13, 2017
4,028
400
83
#116
Locoponydirtman said:
Because God hates everyone who don't speak english, and Jesus gave his sermon on the mount in English, and King James was God's other begotten son.

And 🦄 unicorns
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ROFL
I love the method you used. I took a logic course in college.
It is not the case if the antecedent is true and the consequence is false. Therefore making the consequence false the antecedent is false.
I don't know if you understood this was basic logic.
 
Endoscopy

Endoscopy

Senior Member
#117
Oct 13, 2017
4,028
400
83
#117
Locoponydirtman said:
Why did the King James translators do that
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Language changes over the years. KJV uses the same language as Shakespeare. Reading Shakespeare you will have problems understanding most of his humor. I read an article about this and could laugh after reading the explanation but didn't understand it without that explanation.
 
L

Locoponydirtman

Guest
#119
#119
John146 said:
Sorry, not following you. Sarcasm?
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Why did the King James translators try to correct the original texts during translation? For example they used the word Easter in the book of acts, Easter did not exist at that point in history; when the event took place. Along with literally dozens of other places they added for "clarification" purposes. They presumed to correct God.
Then the whole Hebrews 4 mess. Of translated Jesus, then context would that Jesus has not yet given his rest but his rest is to come, but Jesus has given us his rest and it is not of a future time to come, but ours to have now.
 
K

kaylagrl

Guest
#120
#120
memyselfi said:
Is all 66 Books Bible the infallible, inerrant Word of God? If you chose no, can you please explain how Salvation can be true then?
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memyselfi said:
Is all 66 Books Bible the infallible, inerrant Word of God? If you chose no, can you please explain how Salvation can be true then?
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Are all infallible? Yes,they are. Period.
 
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