Originally Posted by valiant
You omit the crucial fact that it is IF and WHEN they sin that they need their advocate. Thus as he has made clear in 1 John 1. He is aware that at some stage they will sin. So he is declaring that they need forgiveness whenever they sin. This in itself demonstrates that 1 John 1 is not written to Gnostics. And in fact we have no record of what Gnostics in the first century taught. There were many types of Gnostic. The majority were antinomians who saw no harm in sinning, for in their eyes such sins were merely the product of the flesh which they would leave behind when they were finally saved by gnosis. Thus 1 John 1 would not apply to them. The article in the OP is simply using a self-defined gnosticism in order to prove a false exegesis. It is of course true that John had a kind of gnosticism in mind when writing his letter (although we know little of the details). It is NOT true that 1 John 1 had them specifically in mind. Had it done so it would have been worded otherwise.
'These things have I written to you concerning those who would lead you astray. This confirms that 1 John 1 & 2 were written to Christians not to gnostics. Certainly he had gnostics in mind but he was NOT addressing gnostics. He was pointing out to Christians that they must not be deceived about sin and treat it as unimportant. But must immediately deal with it. . Thank you for proving my point.
You omit the crucial fact that it is IF and WHEN they sin that they need their advocate. Thus as he has made clear in 1 John 1. He is aware that at some stage they will sin. So he is declaring that they need forgiveness whenever they sin. This in itself demonstrates that 1 John 1 is not written to Gnostics. And in fact we have no record of what Gnostics in the first century taught. There were many types of Gnostic. The majority were antinomians who saw no harm in sinning, for in their eyes such sins were merely the product of the flesh which they would leave behind when they were finally saved by gnosis. Thus 1 John 1 would not apply to them. The article in the OP is simply using a self-defined gnosticism in order to prove a false exegesis. It is of course true that John had a kind of gnosticism in mind when writing his letter (although we know little of the details). It is NOT true that 1 John 1 had them specifically in mind. Had it done so it would have been worded otherwise.
'These things have I written to you concerning those who would lead you astray. This confirms that 1 John 1 & 2 were written to Christians not to gnostics. Certainly he had gnostics in mind but he was NOT addressing gnostics. He was pointing out to Christians that they must not be deceived about sin and treat it as unimportant. But must immediately deal with it. . Thank you for proving my point.
Written to the believers about those who see trying lead them astray.