Not a single one of my questions has been addressed.
Here are the questions that I have asked before. No response?????
Oh, I answered you alright. Just not in detail.
How much room do the scriptures leave for soteriological difference between Jew and Gentile?
There is no difference, all those who are saved are saved by the Lord Jesus. New Testament believer with knowledge of Jesus Christ, the Old Testament Jew without that knowledge. In Jesus’ talk with Nicodemus, the Lord is stated, “except a man be born again he cannot see the kingdom of God.” Then this remarkable statement, “you are a ruler of the Jews and you don’t understand these things?” Jesus’ cross was still in the future, yet he expected Nicodemus to understand the born-again principle. It would have been impossible for Nicodemus to understand the born-again principle if it was not in effect before the cross, therefore Old Testament believers were born-again just like we are. I believe Scripture teaches that New Testament Jews in that same spiritual condition can also be born-again.
Does anyone have any scripture references where salvation is given to first-century Jews who rejected Jesus Christ but believed in "Messiah"?
In my opinion, this is the more correct question: Is a Jew, sovereignly blinded to the Gospel by sovereign God, Romans 11:8, responsible for not believing it in truths he is not permitted to see? Romans 4:15 states, “when there is no law there is no transgression.”
Do we have historical instances where Messianic Jews accepted into their congregations Jews who rejected Jesus Christ but believed in Messiah?
Not that I know of, but I believe that is because the truths we are discussing here are not generally understood.
Are you saying that Romans teaches that natural revelation and human conscience provide a witness that makes it unnecessary to believe that Jesus Christ came in the flesh and dwelt among us?
Of course not. And I’m not making doctrine either, my words are valueless. I’m just quoting scriptures and asking you to believe them, Romans 2:19, Romans 4:15, Romans 11:11, Romans 11:28-29. It’s easy to believe those verses that fit orthodox doctrine, but it takes a Berean heart to believe those that don’t. It is faulty exegesis to use one verse to disprove another, both are the Word of God. The key to truth is to find how they reconcile because both are true. So why not accept the verses I quoted at face value and believe them? Of course that would make your pariah like me, but it’s worth it because you’d keep the only Friend who counts.
Do you believe that people who believe in the Christ, but who deny that Jesus is that Christ, have sufficient light and need no
warning from the church?
Neither Jew nor Gentile can believe that Jesus is the Christ, except us through a revelation of the Holy Spirit. So in my opinion your question should be: has the Holy Spirit revealed that our New Testament Jesus is the Christ to the Jewish people whom God has sovereignly blinded? If not, they are not responsible for rejecting it, Romans 4:15. The key issue is did God really blind the Jewish people of the Christian era to the Gospel.Romans 11:8 states that He did so I accept it at face value.