Women will be saved through Childbearing, if

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,468
13,781
113
#81
You don't seem to realize that your interpretation of vs. 34-36 that women should not speak in church for cultural and/or corrective reasons...

34Women f should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the law says. 35If they want to inquire about something, they should ask their own husbands at home; for it is disgraceful for a woman to speak in the church.
36Or did the word of God originate with you? Or are you the only people it has reached? - 1 Corinthians 14:34-36


...completely nullifies vs. 26-33, which you say means women CAN speak in church (which I agree with). ...

So, we need to plug a little logic in and ask ourselves what it is, then, that women are to be silent about in church if Paul just asserted the necessity for all, including women, to prophesy, instruct, interpret, etc. As I said, vs. 36 gives us the clue as to what that is:

36 Or did the word of God originate with you? Or are you the only people it has reached? - 1 Corinthians 14:36

I haven't said anything about 1 Corinthians 14:34-36 being a cultural issue.

Paul doesn't introduce the subject of pastoral authority anywhere in that chapter, so you must be inserting it to suit your position. Further, the statement, "women must be silent in the churches" is not qualified at all, but rather is an absolute statement, meaning that you cannot rightly limit it to speaking in the role of pastoral authority. Either women are allowed to speak, period, or they are not allowed to speak, period. If it's a quotation that Paul rejects, it makes perfect sense in context. Otherwise, it clashes.

In light of the other passages about women in the church, like this one...
"11A woman a should learn in quietness and full submission. 12I do not permit a woman to teach or to assume authority over a man; she must be quiet." - 1 Timothy 2:11-12

...it has to mean being quiet in regard to speaking with assumed pastoral or leadership authority. The common denominator that we are to key off of in each passage in order to arrive at a reasonable and logical explanation for women being quiet in church is the 'she must be quiet', and 'Women should remain silent' parts of each passage. Together they point to the matter of women speaking in the role of pastoral authority and leadership in the church, not being silent altogether.

No, it does not "have to" mean that at all. First, the word "authority" is not in the Greek, and the word "pastoral" is not in either the Greek or the English. The key word translated "assume authority" (or worse, "usurp authority") is authentein, which appears in only that one place in the Greek Scriptures. It had a wide range of different meanings in classical Greek writing, everything from 'claim authorship' to 'murder'.

I learned a long time ago, the Bible is it's own best interpreter. Examine everything the Bible says about a subject and see how the various passages about that subject can fit together, without them contradicting each other when forming personal doctrinal positions. I'm kind of a geek, so applying logic to the scriptures comes kind of natural to me, anyway. :geek:
I agree that the Bible usually explains itself, which is why I reject the complementarian view of Paul's letters. Logic is great, and I employ it frequently. Please don't make the error of assuming that you are more logical in your reasoning than I am in mine.
 

Tinkerbell725

Senior Member
Jul 19, 2014
4,216
1,179
113
Philippines Age 40
#82
That Priscilla was with her husband is not too relevant. So it is okay for married women to have teaching authority/pastor over other men, but not single women? I don't think this point is too relevant.

On the elect lady, the point is more that John addressed the letter to her (as though she is a pastor figure), and not a man. "Elect Lady" is a special title. John also tells her to continue teaching. But yes, this is a bit of an assumption that she is a pastor figure, but a strong one I think.


It is relevant. Priscilla was under the authority of her husband becasue she will be vulnerable without her husband. Single women in their time serve in the Church by serving fellow women and children and not teaching or having authority over men for that is not allowed becasue the Bible said so.
 
Dec 30, 2019
1,266
290
83
#83
Hello.

Threads that dwell on childbearing often catch my attention, even if I am not always able to respond. But here, after getting back to reading some of the later posts, let me quickly post (that is, copy-paste from long Notepad excerpts from a book I read many yrs ago on natural childbirth). I'm not an expert on this, ok, but have studied to some extent as a mother who gave birth. I'll post parts only as I consider this of utmost importance for both men and women, to understand childbirth from God's word, and also from the women who give birth themselves=).

But first a short reply to the part on 1 Tim 2.15 read from Wilmington's Bible Handbook:
2 Suggested interpretations for the statement 'would be saved thru childbearing'

1. that being homemakers, women will be saved from the corruption of society;
2. that being homemakers instead of church leaders, they will avoid being judged as teachers of heresy.

So, allow me to derail ur thread, if that's how this looks like.

Samuel Zwener, an early missionary to the Arabs, says that Arab women didn’t have painful deliveries until after their society had been adversely affected by Western culture. Even when trekking across the desert, an ‘Arab woman simply dropped behind the caravan when her labor began. After giving birth to her infant…she would walk (sometimes for many hours) to overtake the caravan, carrying her baby. The experiences of the Heb. women of the Pentateuch were surely similar to these, since they were of the same Semitic origin and culture.'

Chap. 10.
There are 5 (Heb. and Greek) words wc. when applied to a birth, mean simply 'bring forth, etc. Frequently, however, we find these mistranslated as 'travail, sorrow, pain, pangs,' and in some newer translations, even as 'writhe!'

Chap. 11
During the Reformation... not only did women have a low position in society, but twas not until this time-- the 16th and 17th centuries-- that the concept of 'pain in childbirth' was included in the 'curse of eve' teaching. Previously, it was only 'sorrow' and 'groans of toil' in childbirth...and subjection to one's husband were mentioned...
According to German scholars, the word most often associated with pain in labor, Wehen, cant be traced farther back than the middle ages.


Ch. 17 Anthrop.
Heb. woman usually crouched on her heals to give birth (1 Sam. 4.19), another woman knelt bet. her legs to receive the child out her waiting lap (Gen. 30.3).
During the Renaissance
Dr. [Ignaz] philipp semmelweis, an austrian physician, showed the direct relationship bet. the attending physician's lack of personal cleanliness and the resulting puerperal infection of the (childbearing) mother.

18 Theology
It is said that etsev in Gen.3.16, 17 refers primarily to emotions.
Etsev is also translated as ‘toil’ in Prov. 5.10, 10.22, Is. 58.3.

To be consistent, it should also be translated as ‘toil’ in 1 Chron. 4.9.
There is a verse in the NT where the AV adds ‘pain’, although it does not appear in the Greek-- Rom. 8.22 where the Gk simply says:
The whole creation groans in labor together (sunadino) until now.

It is worthy to note that ‘as a woman giving birth,’ wc appears 15x in our English translations of the OT, appears only 9x in the Septuagint.

In Isa. 42.14, rather than having the Lord say, ‘… now will I cry (paah) like a travailing (yalad) woman,’ as the AV reads, the Septuagint authors render this verse as ‘I have been as patient (kartereo) as a woman giving birth (tikto).
Translators have inserted concepts of suffering in other passages of comfort and blessing that refer to childbirth, as in Is. 54.1-4, 66.7-9, Jer. 31.8, etc.

…the really surprising thing is that it is the translators of the newer revisions of the last half century who have been the chief offenders… in their attempt to break away from the awkward literary training and use of familiar english words they have unwittingly ‘read into’ the text the concept of childbirth pain in many places where it is not in the original languages…
As a matter of fact, many of us are guilty of carelessly ‘reading into’ the text our own concepts of childbirth pain [and many other things wc arent there].

Ch. 19 Contemporary obstetric practices
Doctors too, are victims of our negative concepts of childbirth. They have suffered when their patients suffered, and if sometimes if they seem indifferent to a woman’s pain, it is because they felt they had to take a purely objective and scientific attitude toward their patients to function effectively as a physician.

RSV and ESV are very recent translations of the Bible where pain and anguish are used in Jn. 16.21-22.
But records just prior to Christ's time reveal that a birth at this time in history generally took only 2-3 hrs, so we can be certain that Christ is not speaking of 'sorrow' of a prolonged, painful delivery.

Because the concept of pain as a normal accompaniment of labor and birth is so deeply embedded in the minds of many doctors, they have dismissed as ‘irrational’ statements and evidences from women who have experienced happy childbirths.

The natural childbirth patient because she knows how to prevent pain from occurring by relaxation and proper breathing, does not suffer while the untrained orthodox patient bec. she is tense does not feel severe pain even under sedation…

Wessel, The Joy of Natural Childbirth
I remember when my wife had her baby there was not anyone to help us. It was just me and her. So I took her to the hospital and the nurses almost begged me to take her back home again until she was actually ready to deliver. I did not listen to them and it did turn out to be a big mistake. Everything they did to induce the delivery made the situation worse. I was expecting an easy delivery and maybe it would have been if we had not gotten the doctors involved.
 

Whispered

Well-known member
Aug 17, 2019
4,551
2,230
113
www.christiancourier.com
#84
If you are going to look at the passage from this perspective then I think you have it backwards. The women is kept safe in the delivery of her child IF she continues in "faith, love, holiness w/ self control. World wide the infant mortality rate has dropped from 43% to 4.5%. Moses tells us: "The LORD is slow to anger, abounding in love and forgiving sin and rebellion. Yet he does not leave the guilty unpunished; he punishes the children for the sin of the parents to the third and fourth generation." (Numbers14:18) "showing loving devotion to a thousand generations of those who love Me and keep My commandments. " (Exodus20:6)

If you look at the free prenatal care programs they do a massive amount of testing because the women in this group are very high risk.
You are of a mind then that the drop in infant mortality is due directly to women bearing children have kept their faith,love, holiness and self control?
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,468
13,781
113
#85
It is relevant. Priscilla was under the authority of her husband becasue she will be vulnerable without her husband.
Please show where the Bible says that a woman "without her husband" will be vulnerable. Please also explain why she was named before her husband several times, though when they are first introduced, she is named after.
 
T

TheIndianGirl

Guest
#86
Priscilla was under the authority of her husband becasue she will be vulnerable without her husband.
Priscilla is listed first so she may have had a dominant role (usually men are listed first).
 

Tinkerbell725

Senior Member
Jul 19, 2014
4,216
1,179
113
Philippines Age 40
#88
Please show where the Bible says that a woman "without her husband" will be vulnerable. Please also explain why she was named before her husband several times, though when they are first introduced, she is named after.

Eve was tempted because her husband was not around. There is nothing to explain why priscilla was mentioned first. The Bible is clear that the wife cannot have authority over her husband.
 
Jan 4, 2020
1,506
266
83
66
washburn Tn
#89
"Adam was formed first, and then Eve. And it was not Adam who was deceived, but the woman who was deceived and fell into transgression. Women, however, will be saved through childbearing, if they continue in faith, love, and holiness, with self-control" (1Timothy2:15)

In the Hebrew Language it can take up to four pen strokes to make one letter. There are four different sections to this passage. There are also four conditions for the women that they continue in faith, love, holiness w/ self control. This we can understand so we are without excuse. Yet what does this mean that a women is saved "through" childbearing? Lets go back to the beginning in Genesis:

To the serpent He said: "I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your seed and her seed. He will crush your head, and you will strike his heel.” " To the woman He said: “I will sharply increase your pain in childbirth; in pain you will bring forth children. Your desire will be for your husband, and he will rule over you.” (Genesis3:16)

Ok, we are already going into sensory overload with this passage. Also we have what looks like two different conversations here. One with the serpent and one with the women. Yet there is a connection here between HER SEED, CHILDBIRTH & SAVED. In Genesis 38:28 we read about a SCARLET THREAD. Also we read about a Scarlet Thread in the story of Rehab the Prostitute. This Scarlet thread is the Blood Line of Jesus. If people do not read the begets in the Bible they are not going to understand this. The Bible follows the Blood line from Eve to Mary through David. We are going to see tragedy along the way. Rehab was a prostitute. Solomon was the product of adultery between David and Bathsheba after their first child died. We see prostitution and adultery in the bloodline of Jesus.

To try to make this simple Adam & Eve are the Patriarch and Matriarch of Jesus. Eve was saved and redeemed though the child she had. Women are saved though child bearing and Mary was honored to be the women that gave birth to Jesus our saviour. I wonder why Paul could not maintain some degree of purity in teaching this to Timothy. Why does he have to say and because of this women can not pastor a church?

The word of God is simple and the Word of God is infinite. We could go on and on and write many books about the different aspects of this passage. In fact we are told that: "the world itself could not contain the books that should be written." (John21:25) Yet if we understand something we should be able to explain this in a way so simple a child can understand.
 
Jan 4, 2020
1,506
266
83
66
washburn Tn
#90
It is irrelevant. It is clear that a wife cannot be dominant or have authority over her husband.
WHY DID GOD PUNISH MIRIAM & NOT AARON WHEN THEY SPOKE AGAINST MOSES , VERSE IN NUMBERS 12:2 SHOWS US IT WAS HER SAYING THAT GOD SPOKE THROUGH THEM . I THINK IT WAS SHE WAS TRYING TO TAKE A MAN PLACE , GOD BLESS AS HE SEES FIT .
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
37,832
13,558
113
#91
WHY DID GOD PUNISH MIRIAM & NOT AARON WHEN THEY SPOKE AGAINST MOSES , VERSE IN NUMBERS 12:2 SHOWS US IT WAS HER SAYING THAT GOD SPOKE THROUGH THEM . I THINK IT WAS SHE WAS TRYING TO TAKE A MAN PLACE , GOD BLESS AS HE SEES FIT .
what an interesting question! :D

v.2 seems to me to say it was both of them speaking against Moses; not just Miriam but also Aaron.
 

Tinkerbell725

Senior Member
Jul 19, 2014
4,216
1,179
113
Philippines Age 40
#92
WHY DID GOD PUNISH MIRIAM & NOT AARON WHEN THEY SPOKE AGAINST MOSES , VERSE IN NUMBERS 12:2 SHOWS US IT WAS HER SAYING THAT GOD SPOKE THROUGH THEM . I THINK IT WAS SHE WAS TRYING TO TAKE A MAN PLACE , GOD BLESS AS HE SEES FIT .


It is seems that God was not pleased with her behavior. For Aaron it was acceptable since he and Moses are of the same level. The reason is probably because she is disrespectful to Moses. So God needed to punish her, spit in her face to correct her and put her in her proper place. God is not against women. He is against disrespectful and rebellious women.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,468
13,781
113
#93
Eve was tempted because her husband was not around.
Genesis 3:6 When the woman saw that the tree was good for food, and that it was a delight to the eyes, and that the tree was desirable to make one wise, she took from its fruit and ate; and she gave also to her husband with her, and he ate.

There is nothing to explain why priscilla was mentioned first.
While that's true, she is mentioned first, and would not be if she were not in some way more senior.

The Bible is clear that the wife cannot have authority over her husband.
Where is that in Scripture?
 
Jan 4, 2020
1,506
266
83
66
washburn Tn
#95
WHY DID GOD PUNISH MIRIAM & NOT AARON WHEN THEY SPOKE AGAINST MOSES , VERSE IN NUMBERS 12:2 SHOWS US IT WAS HER SAYING THAT GOD SPOKE THROUGH THEM . I THINK IT WAS SHE WAS TRYING TO TAKE A MAN PLACE , GOD BLESS AS HE SEES FIT .
what an interesting question! :D

v.2 seems to me to say it was both of them speaking against Moses; not just Miriam but also Aaron.
they both did talk against moses , But when she that they both had spoke , GOD heard it & punish Miriam & she was talking about speaking when GOD heard it .& GOD said If her father had only spit in her face . not their face . & god punish her & not him .GOD bless
 
Jan 4, 2020
1,506
266
83
66
washburn Tn
#96
they both did talk against moses , But when she that they both had spoke , GOD heard it & punish Miriam & she was talking about speaking when GOD heard it .& GOD said If her father had only spit in her face . not their face . & god punish her & not him .GOD bless
they both did talk against moses , But when she that they both had spoke , GOD heard it & punish Miriam & she was talking about speaking when GOD heard it .& GOD said If her father had only spit in her face . not their face . & god punish her & not him .GOD bless
they both did talk against moses , But when she that they both had spoke , GOD heard it & punish Miriam & she was talking about speaking when GOD heard it .& GOD said If her father had only spit in her face . not their face . & god punish her & not him .GOD bless
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
37,832
13,558
113
#97
It is seems that God was not pleased with her behavior. For Aaron it was acceptable since he and Moses are of the same level. The reason is probably because she is disrespectful to Moses. So God needed to punish her, spit in her face to correct her and put her in her proper place. God is not against women. He is against disrespectful and rebellious women.

i notice that this all started about a woman, Moses' Ethiopian wife, and apparently human judgement over her, and ends with divine judgement against the woman who had judged her. there's probably a subtext to the two of them speaking against Moses over his wife, because what does that have to do with whether God has spoken through Miriam & Aaron as well as through Moses? did those two add that the Israelites shouldn't marry Ethiopians, when God hadn't said so? we have v.3 here for a reason, saying Moses was meeker than everyone.
but i notice that Aaron is the one turning to Moses asking for forgiveness, but it doesn't say Miriam was likewise repentant. maybe she wasn't. this may be really, the "why" if Miriam was still stiff-necked when Aaron had repented.
__________:unsure:
 
Jan 4, 2020
1,506
266
83
66
washburn Tn
#98
SORRY I'm NOT VERY GOOD AT THIS .THIS IS NUMBERS 12 :14 where GOD said this. GOD BLESS
 
Jan 4, 2020
1,506
266
83
66
washburn Tn
#99
i notice that this all started about a woman, Moses' Ethiopian wife, and apparently human judgement over her, and ends with divine judgement against the woman who had judged her. there's probably a subtext to the two of them speaking against Moses over his wife, because what does that have to do with whether God has spoken through Miriam & Aaron as well as through Moses? did those two add that the Israelites shouldn't marry Ethiopians, when God hadn't said so? we have v.3 here for a reason, saying Moses was meeker than everyone.
but i notice that Aaron is the one turning to Moses asking for forgiveness, but it doesn't say Miriam was likewise repentant. maybe she wasn't. this may be really, the "why" if Miriam was still stiff-necked when Aaron had repented.
__________:unsure:
she was not punish for speaking against moses. for both spoke against moses & GOD is just SO being just he would punish both if that was what it was for . GOD BLESS ,
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
37,832
13,558
113
i notice that this all started about a woman, Moses' Ethiopian wife, and apparently human judgement over her, and ends with divine judgement against the woman who had judged her. there's probably a subtext to the two of them speaking against Moses over his wife, because what does that have to do with whether God has spoken through Miriam & Aaron as well as through Moses? did those two add that the Israelites shouldn't marry Ethiopians, when God hadn't said so? we have v.3 here for a reason, saying Moses was meeker than everyone.
but i notice that Aaron is the one turning to Moses asking for forgiveness, but it doesn't say Miriam was likewise repentant. maybe she wasn't. this may be really, the "why" if Miriam was still stiff-necked when Aaron had repented.
__________:unsure:
however Aaron doesn't plead for mercy until after Miriam is made leprous. this all happens immediately after God judges this man and this woman. is this because God knows who will repent by understanding the judgement and who will need to be afflicted for a 7 in order to understand?