Forgive me if this sounds blasphemous but.....

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Lyta137

Senior Member
Dec 7, 2013
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I just wanna know....(don't think of chewing my neck off or anything)

Um...well after his baptism, Jesus was accompanied to the wilderness where He was TEMPTED for 40 days and nights. Tempted by Satan that is...but we also know that Jesus was perfect and BORN without sin. But if He was born perfect then what was the point of the temptation...

Here is my main question, from the stated facts, I would like to know...did Jesus Christ have the ABILITY to sin? (putting in perspective that He had to be tried and tempted first before officially beginning His ministry)...
 
He had the ability to sin, otherwise him being tempted would have been disingenuous and pointless. It is said that Jesus prayed to be spared from death, and GOD heard him because he feared GOD. Obviously, that means eternal death resulting from sin because he was not spared a physical death.

who in the days of his flesh offered up both prayers and supplications, with loud crying and tears, to the one who was able to save him from death, and he was heard as a result of his reverence. Hebrews 5:7
 
I just wanna know....(don't think of chewing my neck off or anything)

Um...well after his baptism, Jesus was accompanied to the wilderness where He was TEMPTED for 40 days and nights. Tempted by Satan that is...but we also know that Jesus was perfect and BORN without sin. But if He was born perfect then what was the point of the temptation...

Here is my main question, from the stated facts, I would like to know...did Jesus Christ have the ABILITY to sin? (putting in perspective that He had to be tried and tempted first before officially beginning His ministry)...
Jesus, God manifest in the flesh, did/does not have the ability to sin. He was tempted in the wilderness to provide us example of what to do when tempted (use the weapon of the word of God) and to sympathise with our weaknesses.
"For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin. Let us therefore come boldly unto the throne of grace, that we may obtain mercy, and find grace to help in time of need" (Hebrews 4:15-16).
 
I just wanna know....(don't think of chewing my neck off or anything)

Um...well after his baptism, Jesus was accompanied to the wilderness where He was TEMPTED for 40 days and nights. Tempted by Satan that is...but we also know that Jesus was perfect and BORN without sin. But if He was born perfect then what was the point of the temptation...

Here is my main question, from the stated facts, I would like to know...did Jesus Christ have the ABILITY to sin? (putting in perspective that He had to be tried and tempted first before officially beginning His ministry)...


The highlighted is very incorrect, though a popular opinion in Christianity. Jesus was not born without sin. The mere fact that he became man and subject to the law automatically makes him a sinner because sin(as far as God is concerned) is being under the law, and we know that Jesus came to fulfill the law.

Jesus's perfection was in the sense that he was the perfect personification/incarnation of the law, not perfection as to be without sin.

So, to answer your question: Jesus had the capability to fall to temptation, thus he had to endure and overcome them.
 
Jesus was not born without sin. The mere fact that he became man and subject to the law automatically makes him a sinner because sin(as far as God is concerned) is being under the law, and we know that Jesus came to fulfill the law.

Jesus's perfection was in the sense that he was the perfect personification/incarnation of the law, not perfection as to be without sin.

Laughable nonsense.
 
The ability ti sin was disobeying (like you and I could, any moment).

He came KNOWING why He was sent here. Doing another thing was disobeying and dishonoring what He arranged with His Dad, outside the earth.

Temptation?
I know you can do many things well. Just imagine I love the girl of may dreams. I have told her all the things that could hurt me (and her).

What if she meets another man she likes more than me?

Will she kiss another while being engaged with me?

The truth is she is free to obey my saying to follow hers (Jesus did His Father´s will, instead).

I used that example because I know it well (That hurts) and I have don´t my will, instead of God´s.
 
The highlighted is very incorrect, though a popular opinion in Christianity. Jesus was not born without sin. The mere fact that he became man and subject to the law automatically makes him a sinner because sin(as far as God is concerned) is being under the law, and we know that Jesus came to fulfill the law.

Jesus's perfection was in the sense that he was the perfect personification/incarnation of the law, not perfection as to be without sin.
So, to answer your question: Jesus had the capability to fall to temptation, thus he had to endure and overcome them.
what-meme.png


Are you a Christian?

 
Jesus was perfect in the idea that he didn't sin, but his nature was not perfect. At any point he could have sinned but he rose above it.
"For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin. Let us therefore come boldly unto the throne of grace, that we may obtain mercy, and find grace to help in time of need" (Hebrews 4:15-16).
This verse basically is saying that Jesus can relate with what we are going through. Now he does not have the ability to sin because he is immortal with God but he could have sinned at any point on the earth.
Hebrews 2:14 KJVKing James Version
Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is , the devil;

He partook in the same flesh and blood as we have, he had same desire to sin as we do which is explained in Romans 7. The idea that we all want to, an do not want to sin at the same time. Jesus struggled with it just as we do, but he never did actually sin. So he was perfect but his nature was not in the idea that his nature wanted him to sin, but he overcame.
 
Jesus, God manifest in the flesh, did/does not have the ability to sin. He was tempted in the wilderness to provide us example of what to do when tempted (use the weapon of the word of God) and to sympathise with our weaknesses.
"For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin. Let us therefore come boldly unto the throne of grace, that we may obtain mercy, and find grace to help in time of need" (Hebrews 4:15-16).
Use the weapon of the word of God is in fact using His own word because He is the Word isn't it? So what was He referring to when He said "man does not live on bread alone but on every word that comes from the mouth of God"?
 
He is the word in the sense that he perfectly manifested the word, not literally he was the word. He did God's will perfectly and God's will is presented in his word, and Jesus did the will perfectly, making him the word enacted in a sense.
 
if you make a widget, before you put it on the market you test it.
not because you expect it to fail, because you designed it to work, not to fall apart -
but to prove that it works.

being tempted He proved Himself worthy. it wasn't to see if He was or not, but to show
us.

'the proof of the pudding is in the eating of it.'
we don't eat it to see if it's poison or not, but to truly understand just how tasty it is!
 
I just wanna know....(don't think of chewing my neck off or anything)

Um...well after his baptism, Jesus was accompanied to the wilderness where He was TEMPTED for 40 days and nights. Tempted by Satan that is...but we also know that Jesus was perfect and BORN without sin. But if He was born perfect then what was the point of the temptation...

Christ was born sinless, but apparently not perfect. He was perfected in his death.

For it was fitting for him for whom are all things and through whom are all things in bringing many sons to glory to perfect the originator of their salvation through sufferings. Hebrews 2:10
 
In His weakened state from not eating or drinking, He was tempted only in His adam nature inherited from Mary, but His Spirit as God, only became stronger from answering satan with scripture. And is the pattern for us.

Have discussed this at length elsewhere and is what I saw as a conclusion. Am sure there is more to see. :)
 
In His weakened state from not eating or drinking, He was tempted only in His adam nature inherited from Mary, but His Spirit as God, only became stronger from answering satan with scripture. And is the pattern for us.
If his spirit was "God" why would it need to became stronger? What is stronger than God?
 
Christ was born sinless, but apparently not perfect. He was perfected in his death.

For it was fitting for him for whom are all things and through whom are all things in bringing many sons to glory to perfect the originator of their salvation through sufferings. Hebrews 2:10

This isn't too popular a concept because of what our Christian tradition says (i.e. that Christ was born perfect), but scripture can't be broken. Yes, Christ was perfected by what all he suffered through.

---

Such a concept (of Christ being perfected) seems contradictory because of (what I feel) is an equally incorrect tradition Christians subscribe to; that of "inheriting Original Sin from Adam". I don't think "Christ being perfected" is contradictory at all.

I don't know how the majority of CC members feel about this issues, but from Christians I've talked to in person, many believe that all people are "born sinful" because of Adam's sin, when instead scripture says we are "born in corruptible flesh" because of Adam's sin...and that corruptible flesh compels us to sin. But the former is what many Christians believe. However, "Original Sin" is another doctrine passed down to the rest of the Church from Roman Catholicism.

Sin is not a "condition" but an action (i.e. the act of disobeying God), while our corruptible flesh is the "condition" we've inherited from Adam. By this reasoning, I believe all are born sinless (i.e. we haven't yet been disobedient), but all - except one - have sinned (i.e. have disobeyed God), and that exception is Christ. The rest of us have succumbed to the desires of our corruptible flesh at some point in our lives and have sinned (i.e. have disobeyed God) as a result.

So ALL have the ability to disobey God (i.e. sin) including Christ (else Christ's temptation would've been pointless like HeRose says), and ALL are compelled to sin (because this flesh is at war with God), but only Christ resisted this flesh and showed he loved God enough to remain obedient to him (i.e. not sin) all of his life.

Only when Christ died could it finally be said that he "lived a perfect life...all of his life"; only when Christ died could it finally be said that "he was/is perfect, in obedience".
 
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This isn't too popular a concept because of what our Christian tradition says (i.e. that Christ was born perfect), but scripture can't be broken. Yes, Christ was perfected by what all he suffered through.

---

Such a concept (of Christ being perfected) seems contradictory because of (what I feel) is an equally incorrect tradition Christians subscribe to; that of "inheriting Original Sin from Adam". I don't think "Christ being perfected" is contradictory at all.

I don't know how the majority of CC members feel about this issues, but from Christians I've talked to in person, many believe that all people are "born sinful" because of Adam's sin, when instead scripture says we are "born in corruptible flesh" because of Adam's sin...and that corruptible flesh compels us to sin. But the former is what many Christians believe. However, "Original Sin" is another doctrine passed down to the rest of the Church from Roman Catholicism.

Sin is not a "condition" but an action (i.e. the act of disobeying God), while our corruptible flesh is the "condition" we've inherited from Adam. By this reasoning, I believe all are born sinless (i.e. we haven't yet been disobedient), but all - except one - have sinned (i.e. have disobeyed God), and that exception is Christ. The rest of us have succumbed to the desires of our corruptible flesh at some point in our lives and have sinned (i.e. have disobeyed God) as a result.

So ALL have the ability to disobey God (i.e. sin) including Christ (else Christ's temptation would've been pointless like HeRose says), and ALL are compelled to sin (because this flesh is at war with God), but only Christ resisted this flesh and showed he loved God enough to remain obedient to him (i.e. not sin) all of his life.

Only when Christ died could it finally be said that he "lived a perfect life...all of his life"; only when Christ died could it finally be said that "he was/is perfect, in obedience".


Excellent post.
 
Do a word study on tempted in the four gospels, "they tempted Him" the tempters tempted. God cannot be tempted in Himself, He is holy.

13 Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man:



The flesh is not corrupt, but corruption is in the body of death born after the likeness and image of Adam.

3 And Adam lived an hundred and thirty years, and begat a son in his own likeness, and after his image;*

" Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my mother conceive me."


Christ "knew no sin" meaning the nature of sin. God does not share in this nature, He cannot, He is righteous & holy.

21*For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.


This is also the case for the new creature, the identity of the new man. There is something else to consider, "sin is condemned in the flesh"
 
Just because satan was tempting jesus doesn't mean jesus was tempted to sin...satan was taunting him..