A
So what your basically trying to say is that John who was guided and inspired by God himself through the holy spirit quoted a text which was wrongly translated which is now forever written in Bibles at John 19:37, this I find hard to believe. We don't even know what Manuscript John quoted from, so for anybody to assume he did would be foolish.
I was merely explaining why the NT differs in exact wording from the OT passages that it quotes, since this seemed to make a big difference to you in regard to Zechariah 12:10. It is something we need to keep in mind when we look at the places in the Bible where the NT quotes the OT, or when it refers to the OT. That isn't to say that the authors were not familiar with the Hebrew, or whatever.
Greek was the scholarly language back then, so it makes sense for the NT authors to quote the Septuagint, which was in Greek...rather than the Hebrew. The very fact that the Holy Spirit inspired them to reference certain Scriptures does sometimes point to Jesus' deity, if we consider what the Hebrew for those passages was.
I thought it was pretty much accepted that the NT authors quoted from the Septuagint rather than the Hebrew....
The fact remains, John, the anointed, the apostle of Christ would of surely spoken the correct translation, by accurate direction by God and also through his knowledge on the scripture by being time spent with Jesus. You spoke of logic to me before so think for a second, if the "him" in Zec 12:10 with regard to Jesus is not disputed, and neither is the text john writing in John 19:37 but the "me" in Zechariah 12:10 is then would it be logical to base a belief on such a debated verse, I know I wouldn't.
So again my statement still stands, Zechariah 12:10 cannot be used to show Jesus is Jehovah, even if it is the correct translation which it most probably isn't, reasoning based on Matthew 10:40 along with 1 Samuel 8:5,7 shows how its still possible.
No worries, take your time friend.