Upon reading the title to this thread, I'm sure you planned to walk right in and write "David", knowing that's the obvious answer. After all, even non-Christians know the story of David & Goliath found in 1 Samuel 17.
But did you know that the death of Goliath is briefly recapped in 2 Samuel? Chapter 21, verse 19 and reads as follows (NIV):
This passage may confuse you. "It's talking about the brother of Goliath," you say. "Not Goliath". No, it's not. If you check out the link above (or read the subscript that is undoubtedly in your own bible) you'll see that the Hebrew verse doesn't contain "the brother of"... those words were added because of the obvious contradiction between this story and the one we all know about David being Goliath's killer. Note further this list from Biblehub of the various versions, some which include this fabrication and some which faithfully transmit the original Hebrew.
There's a discussion of this verse below that list (as there usually is of every verse). The "Pulpit Commentary" sticks with the original Hebrew and suggests that "Elhanan" must be a nickname for David and "Jair" is a nickname for his father, Jesse. This isn't because either of them is known by those nicknames, but because the writer of the commentary here is incredulous that such un-famous people could be the famous killers of Goliath. This is followed by "Gill's exposition" which claims that the fabricators were correct in assuming that it was Goliath's brother rather than Goliath himself because he notes that there are further contradictions in who the famous father of Elhanan was (Dodo, not Jair) and Goliath's death in the valley of Elah, not Gob.
As an atheist, I find this to be the common way that apologists deal with contradictions -- they don't even consider the possible alternative that the bible contains contradictions, even when the KJV translators deliberately mistranslated the bible and we know for a fact that they did. They were mistranslating to avoid a non-contradiction? That sounds silly, but I'd like to know what you think. Even if the bible isn't contradictory, these two commentaries can't both be right. Which one is right (if even one of them is)?
But did you know that the death of Goliath is briefly recapped in 2 Samuel? Chapter 21, verse 19 and reads as follows (NIV):
In another battle with the Philistines at Gob, Elhanan son of Jairthe Bethlehemite killed the brother of Goliath the Gittite, who had a spear with a shaft like a weaver’s rod.
There's a discussion of this verse below that list (as there usually is of every verse). The "Pulpit Commentary" sticks with the original Hebrew and suggests that "Elhanan" must be a nickname for David and "Jair" is a nickname for his father, Jesse. This isn't because either of them is known by those nicknames, but because the writer of the commentary here is incredulous that such un-famous people could be the famous killers of Goliath. This is followed by "Gill's exposition" which claims that the fabricators were correct in assuming that it was Goliath's brother rather than Goliath himself because he notes that there are further contradictions in who the famous father of Elhanan was (Dodo, not Jair) and Goliath's death in the valley of Elah, not Gob.
As an atheist, I find this to be the common way that apologists deal with contradictions -- they don't even consider the possible alternative that the bible contains contradictions, even when the KJV translators deliberately mistranslated the bible and we know for a fact that they did. They were mistranslating to avoid a non-contradiction? That sounds silly, but I'd like to know what you think. Even if the bible isn't contradictory, these two commentaries can't both be right. Which one is right (if even one of them is)?