K
Romans 3:23 or 10-17 does not disqualify Mary from being "Full of Grace". And it still does not answer the question. Who or what time period after the reformation did "Bible-Christians" invent the "Mary is a sinner" theory? Or has all of Christendom been wrong until such time? I already gave the answer. It's a man made insult to Our Lord's mother, not because it's true, but because out of the long list of anti-Catholic falsehoods, that one is particularly offensive to Catholics, including Jesus Himself. It's spiritual sadism. My point is this: how can any Christian who accepts notions pulled out of thin air 300 years ago declare anyone else to be in heresy?
Jesus our Lord in the flesh is the only one without sin.