J
JesusistheChrist
Guest
If such is indeed the case, then why did Paul not only write the following to the church at Corinth, but also ordain the same in all churches:And we have to read that scripture with the glasses of that time and environment. Not with modern anachronistic glasses.."oh, women and children really had a say, they could choose between do and not do". If the head of the family was baptized, guess what: all those in his household followed him.
I Corinthians chapter 7
[12] But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let him not put her away.
[13] And the woman which hath an husband that believeth not, and if he be pleased to dwell with her, let her not leave him.
[14] For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy.
[15] But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace.
[16] For what knowest thou, O wife, whether thou shalt save thy husband? or how knowest thou, O man, whether thou shalt save thy wife?
[17] But as God hath distributed to every man, as the Lord hath called every one, so let him walk. And so ordain I in all churches.
???
Did the unbelieving wife here just "follow the head of the household" in baptism as you'd have us to believe?
Seriously, take this nonsense elsewhere. Better still, just repent of the same.