Perhaps your right however jesus himself even challenged the Pharisee's about their hearts and faith and he must have done this for a purpose other than to prove them wrong.
This debate has been going on with little progress and much strife and so I want to end it with the only thing that can- the scriptures
Why did Jesus challenge the Pharisees?
Mat 23:28
Even so ye also outwardly appear righteous unto men, but within ye are full of hypocrisy and iniquity.
Jesus was speaking of the issue of the heart.
People can outwardly appear to be righteous yet actually be inwardly wicked. This was a point Jesus made in the Sermon on the Mount...
Mat 5:21
Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not kill; and whosoever shall kill shall be in danger of the judgment:
Mat 5:22
But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.
Mat 5:27
Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not commit adultery:
Mat 5:28
But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.
If one sins in their heart then they have sinned. Jesus was addressing the issue of the heart.
Can you see that Blain? I think you can.
Now why was Jesus pointing that out?
Look at this...
Mat 5:20
For I say unto you, That except your righteousness shall exceed the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees, ye shall in no case enter into the kingdom of heaven.
Jesus specifically states that our righteousness must exceed that of the scribes and Pharisees. Jesus also specifically stated that the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees was outward in appearance only.
Now look at this statement...
Mat 23:26
Thou blind Pharisee, cleanse first that which is within the cup and platter, that the outside of them may be clean also.
Blain do you believe that is possible? Your posts deny the possibility of being inwardly cleansed because you speak evil of anyone who claims to have been cleansed. Yet the Bible teaches...
Tit 2:14 Who gave himself for us, that
he might redeem us from all iniquity, and purify unto himself a peculiar people, zealous of good works.
Can you testify of being redeemed from all iniquity and made pure?
Peter spoke of such...
1Pe 1:22 Seeing
ye have purified your souls in obeying the truth through the Spirit unto unfeigned love of the brethren, see that ye love one another with a pure heart fervently:
1Pe 1:23
Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.
The genuine new birth experience is a result of the sinner wholeheartedly yielding to God. We have plucked out the eye and cut off the hand and entered by the narrow gate which leads to life. We have lost our lives to this world and died to sin and have subsequently been railed up to newness of life by the Spirit of God.
Yet you speak evil of us who claim such a thing.
Who was Peter speaking of Blain? Ye have purified your souls in obeying the truth through the Spirit. Who was Peter speaking to Blain?
Paul wrote...
Rom 8:4 That
the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.
The righteousness of the law is fulfilled in who Blain?
Do you walk after the Spirit?
There is no condemnation upon those who have the righteousness of the law fulfilled in them Blain.
Rom 8:2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.
Walking after the Spirit sets us free from the law of sin and death. Walking after the Spirit purifies out souls whereby we can love one another with a pure heart fervently.
Do you love your brother with a pure heart Blain?
Is your heart pure Blain?
Mat 5:8
Blessed are the pure in heart: for they shall see God.
None of this is rocket science.
So what of 1John 1:8. Well read it in context and stop isolating and snipping it in order to force a dogmatic view upon it.
1Jn 1:5 This then is the message which we have heard of him, and declare unto you, that God is light, and in him is no darkness at all.
Is there any darkness in God? Any darkness at all?
Is there any darkness in Jesus Christ? Any darkness at all?
Are you in Jesus Christ with darkness Blain?
1Jn 1:6 If we say that we have fellowship with him, and walk in darkness, we lie, and do not the truth:
Those whom "walk" in darkness and claim fellowship with Christ are liars and do not know the truth. Do you "walk" in darkness or the light Blain? What is
walking ?
1Jn 1:7 But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship one with another, and
the blood of Jesus Christ his Son cleanseth us from all sin.
The blood of Jesus cleanses us from how much sin Blain?
If we are cleansed of all sin and then we willfully sin then what happens?
Heb 10:22 Let us draw near with a true heart in full assurance of faith,
having our hearts sprinkled from an evil conscience, and our bodies washed with pure water.
...
Heb 10:26 For
if we sin wilfully after that we have received the knowledge of the truth, there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins,
Heb 10:27 But a certain fearful looking for of judgment and fiery indignation, which shall devour the adversaries.
Willful sin negates the cleansing Blain. The Bible is very clear on that matter.
1Jn 1:8 If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.
1Jn 1:9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
1Jn 1:10 If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us.
1 John 1:8-10 is about coming clean with God when approaching God seeking reconciliation and a cleansing from ALL sin Blain.
That is the context.
People like you snip a single verse from John and then isolate it. You deceitfully twist the Bible in an attempt to prove a dogmatic view.
John is not going to claim in one place that everyone still sins and that those who deny it are liars, and then claim in another place that those who are born of God do not sin.
1Jn 5:18 We know that
whosoever is born of God sinneth not; but he that is begotten of God keepeth himself, and that wicked one toucheth him not.
The children of God are manifest to the world by their deeds done in righteousness.
1Jn 3:9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.
1Jn 3:10
In this the children of God are manifest, and the children of the devil: whosoever doeth not righteousness is not of God, neither he that loveth not his brother.
How much clearer could it be?
The children of God are MANIFEST because they DO righteousness. The children of the devil are MANIFEST because they do not righteousness.
1Jn 3:8
He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.
Have the works of the devil been destroyed in your life Blain?
Or are you going to cling to 1Joh 1:8 as a proof text and use it as evidence that the works of the devil cannot be destroyed in your life?
The choice is yours.
Am I casting pearls to swine? I hope I am not.