Tongues Perceived as Real Language

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jb

Senior Member
Feb 27, 2010
4,940
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#21
William Burton, a well known Pentecostal missionary whose honesty I would vouch for, tells how he was in a home Pentecostal church where a man repeated over and over again a monotonous phrase in 'tongues' as he worshipped God. It was so monotonous that Burton himself was doubtful of the genuineness of it. But a fellow missionary heard it and was excited. He said that it was a phrase used by a certain African tribe whom he knew to honour their ruler. They would repeat it over and over again in homage, as the man unknowingly was doing to God.
I have a book on his life in the (DR) Congo called "Into Africa", edited by David Womersley and David Garrard, he was a real man of God!

A dear friend of mine, who went to be with the Lord a few years ago, who lived in Stoke on Trent had him at his house to discuss matters relating to end time events as WFP Burton had read some of his studies on that subject. My friend had studied in the AOG bible college in the 1950's and had been greatly inspired by the men of God who were there at that time!
 

Kavik

Senior Member
Mar 25, 2017
794
159
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#22
From the Genesis account, the tower was built somewhere on the plain of Shinar. Shinar is derived from the Hebrew "(land of) two rivers" (shene neharot) - this same area in Greek is known as Mesopotamia; the two rivers being the Tigris and the Euphrates - today's Middle East. Genesis 10:10 also confirms the location of Shinar. The Akkadians called it Shumeru (Sumer/Sumeria).

Why do you assume that angels even use language to communicate? Assuming they do, why do you assume it has to sound like something emanating from a human vocal tract (no matter the sounds from which it’s comprised)? I would assume they do communicate, but I don’t for a moment think it’s by any means that we can clearly comprehend or reproduce.

So who was the guy in the back of the building and where did he live? What was his relative age? It does sound like he was only speaking the man’s ancestral language (what was it and what did it give way to??) You mention Kenya, there are a few officially endangered languages there.
 
Dec 3, 2016
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#23
Obviously an "unknown tongue" is not unknown to the Lord... here's one you scoffers cannot explain away:

1 Corinthians 14:2
For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.

There are different kinds of tongues ... personal tongues for edification is for ALL believers... unless of course you don't mind the devil hearing everything you say to the Lord giving him opportunity to provide opposition.


I bet the devil and God speak to one another in German
Jesus triumphed over satan and made a show of him openly... the Father is not visiting with the defeated foe that Jesus whipped... they certainly don't get together for afternoon tea and crumpets!

Don't bother bringing up Job, that was before Jesus whacked the devil... read Hebrews 9 and understand that the Blood of Jesus has been presented in Heaven, so 'ol slewfoot can't get close much less talk to God.

The devil does his accusing from down here on earth and God promptly ignores the dirty rat as should we.



What language do angels speak when they aren't talking to humans?
They don't... the listen diligently to the voice of the Lord (Psalms 103:20,21)

Angels exist to serve the Lord. They don't exist like people to ignore the Lord and do their own thing.
 
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Kavik

Senior Member
Mar 25, 2017
794
159
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#24
With respect to 1 Cor. 14:2 -

Many use 1 Cor. 14:2 as “proof” of tongues being spiritual language(s) – but upon closer examination, it simply describes real language, though a foreign one to the “hearers”. Note that nowhere does the passage state that the speaker does not understand what he himself is saying.

To explain it further, as one writer put it, “Think of it this way; if I showed up at a Bible study and began to speak in German, but no one else in the room could speak German, I might impress a few people, but no one would understand me. So if I speak in a language that no one else in the room can speak, I am in fact not speaking to men, but to God (who alone can understand all languages). Anything I say would be a mystery to those in the room. That is what Paul was trying to convey” by people speaking a foreign language at a public worship.

Another way to look at it is this: if I attend a worship service in ‘East Haystack’, Alabama two things are going to be evident: one; there’s only going to be so many people at that service (i.e. there will be a finite given amount of people there) and two; the chances that anyone in East Haystack speaks anything but English is pretty slim to nil. If I start praying aloud in say Lithuanian, there’s no one at that service that’s going to understand a bloody word I’m saying. Even though I’m speaking a real language, no one there will understand my “tongue”. That does not mean or imply that no one else understands Lithuanian; just no one at that particular service. So it ends up being a “real language no one understands” (within that given context). To the people listening to me, I am speaking ‘mysteries” in the Spirit (i.e. I’m praying earnestly from my heart and from deep within my being = praying ‘in the spirit’, just not in a language anyone there speaks or understands).

Note that I am neither a so-called "continuationist" or "cessationist" (nor, for those wondering, am I an atheist); frankly I had never heard those two terms prior to late last year. I don't hold to either side of the argument. Since "tongues" in the Bible are nothing but real language(s), obviously they haven't stopped.
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
12,453
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#25
Not quite sure where to post this so thought this might be the better sub-forum.

I am hoping to get some insight into a few questions I had regarding tongues.

Specifically, I’m looking at situations where the speaker will ‘pray with’ or ‘pray over’ a person in tongues (this person I’ll refer to as the ‘recipient’) and the recipient will hear it as his/her native language, which the speaker does not know nor has ever been exposed to in any way shape or form. As I understand it, this typically will occur in a more private setting as opposed to a more public setting such as a church service.

As a Linguist, I have studied the phenomenon of tongues and, without getting into details (which can be found elsewhere on this forum), suffice to say that I am working on the premise that there are no known provable cases of what is known as xenoglossy/xenoglossia; the ability to speak a language one has never had any previous contact with in any way, shape or form.

So, to the questions –

Despite the premise outlined above, the Pentecostal/Charismatic community is rife with examples of ‘tongues’ being heard/understood as real language(s). It is truly unfortunate that no such cases have ever been documented and studied as it would answer a lot of debates and questions. I am not beyond believing that that the divine can speak to a third party through someone. In fact, this is common in a lot of faith traditions around the world and, is more the “correct” (if I can call it that) usage of the tool of glossolalia as it is practiced around the world.

If for a moment we can take these occurrences (situations where the speaker will ‘pray with’ or ‘pray over’ a person in tongues and the recipient will hear it as his/her native language) at face value, it begs a few questions:

1. Is the speaker actually shifting their non-cognitive non-language utterances (NC-NLU’s, a/k/a glossolalia) to a real language?
2. Is the recipient physically hearing the speaker in his/her language?
3. Is the recipient only subconsciously hearing his/her own language?

The unfortunate thing is that, from what I’ve been able to learn, these occurrences seem to always occur on a one-to-one basis; there never seems to be anyone else there to verify what’s going on with respect to the above questions.

I would argue that, unless proven otherwise, scenario one is probably unlikely. If the speaker is actually shifting from NC-NLU’s to real language, it would be something instantly and very obvious to any third party present. I have never heard of any such accounts reported.

With scenario two, if the recipient is physically hearing the speaker in his/her language, the additional question it begs is: if a third party were there, what would they hear; NC-NLU’s or real language?

If real language, then scenario one would be the answer – the speaker is shifting from NC-NLU’s to real language.

If however any third party present is still hearing NC-NLU’s while the recipient is hearing his/her language, then this would be a question of how what is being spoken by the speaker is perceived by the listener(s) (recipient and any third party); i.e. what we can for now term a “miracle of hearing”.

With scenario three, if the speaker is not shifting to a real language and the recipient is also hearing it as NC-NLU’s but subconsciously receiving a message in his/her language, then the situation is similar to scenario two; however, what the recipient is hearing is not actually anything being spoken in any way by the speaker. In this case, the NC-NLU’s are serving as a tool by which the message is subconsciously perceived by the recipient in his/her language.

Again, this is the issue with many of these reports; there is never a third party ‘witness’ to verify what is happening.

Further, what is the recipient actually hearing? Is it simply a word or phrase repeated over and over, or is it an actual short monologue?

I suspect that in most cases, the recipient is subconsciously hearing a message in his/her own language rather than a change/shift in what the speaker is physically producing.

The ‘praying with’ or ‘praying over’ the recipient by the speaker via NC-NLU’s just sets the tone/mood, so to speak, to allow the recipient to receive a positive reinforcement/outcome to his/her situation by means of a received message in his/her own language.

Whether or not the message is subconsciously self-created or actually divinely received is a matter for further study (between psychologists and theologians). Perhaps, however, it’s actually a lot more straightforward; if you believe in divine help, then the message perceived is from God; if not, then it’s self-created. Personally, I’d like to hope it’s the first.

The above I believe describe the more correct use of glossolalia; i.e. to aid a third party (the “recipient” as referenced above) on a very personal, and apparently one-to-one basis, but it begs the question of just what is going on with the speaker (NC-NLU’s or shifting to real language), and how the recipient is perceiving the phenomenon (physically hearing his/her language, subconsciously perceiving a message in his/her own language), and if there is a third party present, what are they perceiving; NC-NLU’s or a shift to real language?

Most reports I’m familiar with are, to put it bluntly, sort of hearsay; “So-and-so told me onetime that…..”; “My friend said that while she was in such-and-such a place, she heard that….”. They are not told by the actual ‘recipient’ of the message; they’re reported by someone else who usually was not there to witness the event, not an actual account by the recipient of what transpired.

Do such reports exist? I’m hoping to find something that may describe such experiences in a more unbiased manner (sort of “this is what happened as best I can describe it” type description).

The purpose is to try and determine (1) what is the speaker producing in these instances, (2) how does the recipient perceive the message in his/her language with respect to what the speaker is producing, and lastly (3) what is the recipient actually hearing; a word, a phrase, a short monologue. If only a word of phrase, is it said once or is it repeated.

Insights to the above would be appreciated.

Thanks.
I'm sure many can use human reasoning to dismiss something that is not natural but Super natural is the Gifts of the Holy Spirit. Also did you know that the university of Pennsylvania did a study were they concluded that tongues spoken to day are actual languages? one can use human reason to dismiss or prove a bias. But the Word of God is very clear. this is not a hearsay Jesus spoke abut the gifts in Mark, The Book of Acts records many accounts to establish as a normative in biblical contextual meaning. 1cor chapter 12, 13, 14 give God Ordained gifting known as " The Gifts of the Holy Spirit". I ask you do you hold to the same human reasoning for the remaining 8 or only just this one gift?
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
12,453
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#26
With respect to 1 Cor. 14:2 -

Many use 1 Cor. 14:2 as “proof” of tongues being spiritual language(s) – but upon closer examination, it simply describes real language, though a foreign one to the “hearers”. Note that nowhere does the passage state that the speaker does not understand what he himself is saying.

To explain it further, as one writer put it, “Think of it this way; if I showed up at a Bible study and began to speak in German, but no one else in the room could speak German, I might impress a few people, but no one would understand me. So if I speak in a language that no one else in the room can speak, I am in fact not speaking to men, but to God (who alone can understand all languages). Anything I say would be a mystery to those in the room. That is what Paul was trying to convey” by people speaking a foreign language at a public worship.

Another way to look at it is this: if I attend a worship service in ‘East Haystack’, Alabama two things are going to be evident: one; there’s only going to be so many people at that service (i.e. there will be a finite given amount of people there) and two; the chances that anyone in East Haystack speaks anything but English is pretty slim to nil. If I start praying aloud in say Lithuanian, there’s no one at that service that’s going to understand a bloody word I’m saying. Even though I’m speaking a real language, no one there will understand my “tongue”. That does not mean or imply that no one else understands Lithuanian; just no one at that particular service. So it ends up being a “real language no one understands” (within that given context). To the people listening to me, I am speaking ‘mysteries” in the Spirit (i.e. I’m praying earnestly from my heart and from deep within my being = praying ‘in the spirit’, just not in a language anyone there speaks or understands).

Note that I am neither a so-called "continuationist" or "cessationist" (nor, for those wondering, am I an atheist); frankly I had never heard those two terms prior to late last year. I don't hold to either side of the argument. Since "tongues" in the Bible are nothing but real language(s), obviously they haven't stopped.

it does not say that.
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
12,453
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#27
Interesting to note that diversity of languages or tongues came about because God judged the wicked hearts of men at Babel.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
but that was not the case recorded in Acts 2 or in context to 1 cor 12, 13, 14, all verses not just the cherry picked ones
 
Jan 27, 2013
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#28
[h=2]Tongues Perceived as Real Language v languages of the world.[/h]
for example.

if the bible was wrote in hebrew and greek. (ie different books of the bible)how many spoke English at this time , or german, chinese to mention to name some lingos.

if i speak english , would i not write in english. or the language you speak your self(food for thought)
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
12,453
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#29
Tongues Perceived as Real Language v languages of the world.


for example.

if the bible was wrote in hebrew and greek. (ie different books of the bible)how many spoke English at this time , or german, chinese to mention to name some lingos.

if i speak english , would i not write in english. or the language you speak your self(food for thought)
what does that have to do with a super natural Gift of the Holy Spirit?
 
Jan 27, 2013
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#30
all were jewish at pentecoste.

5 Now there were dwelling in Jerusalem Jews, devout men from every nation under heaven.6 And at this sound the multitude came together, and they were bewildered, because each one was hearing them speak in his own language.7 And they were amazed and astonished, saying, "Are not all these who are speaking Galileans?8 And how is it that we hear, each of us in his own native language?9 Parthians and Medes and Elamites and residents of Mesopotamia, Judea and Cappadocia, Pontus and Asia,10 Phrygia and Pamphylia, Egypt and the parts of Libya belonging to Cyrene, and visitors from Rome,11 both Jews and proselytes, Cretans and Arabians---we hear them telling in our own tongues the mighty works of God."12 And all were amazed and perplexed, saying to one another, "What does this mean?"13 But others mocking said, "They are filled with new wine."Acts 2


for example

28 And he said to them, "You yourselves know how unlawful it is for a Jew to associate with or to visit anyone of another nation, but God has shown me that I should not call any person common or unclean.Acts 10

and
usa was not discovered by europe to around 1610 ad

change is growth to understanding etc
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
12,453
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#33
all were jewish at pentecoste.

5 Now there were dwelling in Jerusalem Jews, devout men from every nation under heaven.6 And at this sound the multitude came together, and they were bewildered, because each one was hearing them speak in his own language.7 And they were amazed and astonished, saying, "Are not all these who are speaking Galileans?8 And how is it that we hear, each of us in his own native language?9 Parthians and Medes and Elamites and residents of Mesopotamia, Judea and Cappadocia, Pontus and Asia,10 Phrygia and Pamphylia, Egypt and the parts of Libya belonging to Cyrene, and visitors from Rome,11 both Jews and proselytes, Cretans and Arabians---we hear them telling in our own tongues the mighty works of God."12 And all were amazed and perplexed, saying to one another, "What does this mean?"13 But others mocking said, "They are filled with new wine."Acts 2


for example

28 And he said to them, "You yourselves know how unlawful it is for a Jew to associate with or to visit anyone of another nation, but God has shown me that I should not call any person common or unclean.Acts 10

and
usa was not discovered by europe to around 1610 ad

change is growth to understanding etc
that would be correct until the Holy Spirit came on the gentiles and Peter and Paul both spoke about that context is important
 
Jan 27, 2013
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#34
what does that have to do with a super natural Gift of the Holy Spirit?
you read the bible, you never listen to the speaker. you also read this post, hear a voice and reading would it count as the same, ie we would all be speaking greek or hebrew
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
12,453
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#35
you read the bible, you never listen to the speaker. you also read this post, hear a voice and reading would it count as the same, ie we would all be speaking greek or hebrew
actually we are to approach the bible as the word of God and human reasoning i.e. carnal minded blocks one from receiving what is the Authorial intent . contextual meaning is asking what did not author say , who did he say it too? and how do i apply it to day . The Speaker is God
 
Jan 27, 2013
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#36
that would be correct until the Holy Spirit came on the gentiles and Peter and Paul both spoke about that context is important
context is change ,we do not rewind to fit logic, we can not change the past, what make you think they could change the past.

to fit your logic. tell me was peter or paul alive at 70 ad.
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
12,453
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#37
context is change ,we do not rewind to fit logic, we can not change the past, what make you think they could change the past.

to fit your logic. tell me was peter or paul alive at 70 ad.
the only context change from the post you provided is that of Nimrod. when clearly that event has nothing to do with the event of the Holy Spirit recorded in Acts 2 and the context of what Jesus said in Mark 16 or what paul was given to say by the Holy Spirit is 1 cor 12, 13, 14 chapters. And the truth the gentile who were not Jews spoke in tongues as the Book of acts recorded.
 
Jan 27, 2013
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#38
actually we are to approach the bible as the word of God and human reasoning i.e. carnal minded blocks one from receiving what is the Authorial intent . contextual meaning is asking what did not author say , who did he say it too? and how do i apply it to day . The Speaker is God
you can approached the way you want, you cannot change your past, out of context is not speaking for god, using an example of a bible quote is using human logic to imply a spiritual concept. but truth is what sets you free, then using out of context cannot be in truth now can it.
 
Jan 27, 2013
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#39
the only context change from the post you provided is that of Nimrod. when clearly that event has nothing to do with the event of the Holy Spirit recorded in Acts 2 and the context of what Jesus said in Mark 16 or what paul was given to say by the Holy Spirit is 1 cor 12, 13, 14 chapters. And the truth the gentile who were not Jews spoke in tongues as the Book of acts recorded.
why did god punish human , by the way, they talk, your concept misses the concept of being understood. would you have to communicate with them to be understood. you never answer the part about spoken word , and written words,

without change we would not have a future bible book.

for example
how many translation of the bible are in the world today
 
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CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
12,453
4,103
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#40
you can approached the way you want, you cannot change your past, out of context is not speaking for god, using an example of a bible quote is using human logic to imply a spiritual concept. but truth is what sets you free, then using out of context cannot be in truth now can it.
I do not see anything you have said that changes the Biblical context of the book of acts which both Paul and Peter were possibly already killed. and you cannot bring the past even out of context to event in a different time frame as it is not ment to be