That's right jaybird, He did teach that but obviously you don't know why? So can you please tell me how you reconcile what Jesus said at John 4:23 to what the Apostle Thomas said at John 20:28 where he declared to Jesus Christ that He/Jesus was his "Lord and God?" Which btw is the highest form of worship for an orthodox Jew to say to a man only (like you and others believe) that Jesus Christ is his "Lord and God."
So why would Thomas say that and moreover why does Jesus Christ not correct Thomas and tell him is wrong? I mean afterall did not Jesus Himself say at Luke 4:8, "It is written, You shall worship the Lord your God and serve Him only." How do you explain or reconcile all of this jaybird? I would really like to know?
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto