Speaking in Tongues (Privately, Outside of Church)

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shrume

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Jun 26, 2017
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1Co 12:1 Now concerning spiritual gifts, brethren, I would not have you ignorant.

Ignorant of what?
Ignorant of spiritual matters. God does not want us ignorant of spiritual matters. Paul then (by revelation) spends three chapters discussing spiritual matters, notably the proper use of speaking in tongues, interpretation of tongues, and prophesy.
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
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It also does not say "gifts". Look it up. There is no Greek word for "gifts" in 1 Cor 12:1. In the KJV, the word "gifts" is in italics, indicating it was added by the translators. The word translated "spiritual gifts" is pneumatikos, and it means "spiritual things", or "spiritual matters".


Again, pneumatikos does not means "gifts".

While I completely disagree with kavik's view on speaking in tongues (that it is a language known to the speaker), he is correct in stating that tongues is not a gift, but one of the nine manifestations of the singular gift of the Holy Spirit.


Speaking in tongues is one of the nine manifestations of the gift of the Holy Spirit. The gift is the Holy spirit, and it can be evidenced, or manifested, in nine different ways.


Speaking in tongues is one of the nine manifestations of the gift of the Holy Spirit. The gift is the Holy spirit, and it can be evidenced, or manifested, in nine different ways.[/QUOTE]


lol but it's not a gift? but yet you repeat it is a gift that is manifested. lol ahahahhaha

OK I will look it up again so you can tell me it is a gift LOL.
 

shrume

Senior Member
Jun 26, 2017
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Speaking in tongues is one of the nine manifestations of the gift of the Holy Spirit. The gift is the Holy spirit, and it can be evidenced, or manifested, in nine different ways.

lol but it's not a gift? but yet you repeat it is a gift that is manifested. lol ahahahhaha
I'm sorry you are having trouble understanding.

The gift is the Holy Spirit. That one gift can be manifested, or evidenced, in nine different ways. The nine manifestations are not gifts, they are manifestations of the singular gift of the Holy Spirit.
 

CS1

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May 23, 2012
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I'm sorry you are having trouble understanding.

The gift is the Holy Spirit. That one gift can be manifested, or evidenced, in nine different ways. The nine manifestations are not gifts, they are manifestations of the singular gift of the Holy Spirit.

nope no trouble at all you saying so does not make it so lol. I don't really take you serious anyway :) I'm saved and Have the Holy Ghost in me as the word of God says in John 14 chapter and 16. why don't you just take out the word Gift then shall you?. that way the word manifested won't have the issue of Gifts said 4 times in chapter 12. not to mention 13 and 14
 

shrume

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Jun 26, 2017
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nope no trouble at all you saying so does not make it so lol. I don't really take you serious anyway :)
That's certainly your prerogative.

I'm saved and Have the Holy Ghost in me as the word of God says in John 14 chapter and 16. why don't you just take out the word Gift then shall you?.
There is no doubt the Holy Spirit is a gift, given when people hear and believe the gospel.

that way the word manifested won't have the issue of Gifts said 4 times in chapter 12. not to mention 13 and 14
Again, the gift is the gift of the Holy Spirit. Tongues is not a gift. Interpretation is not a gift. The other seven manifestations are not gifts. They are manifestations of the one gift of the Holy Spirit.

A simple analogy might be if I gave you a light bulb. The gift is the light bulb. That light bulb has two manifestations: light and heat. Light and heat are not gifts, they are manifestations of the gift of the light bulb. If you never screw in the light bulb and turn it on, you will never experience the manifestations of the gift of the light bulb. But you will still have the gift of the light bulb.
 

notuptome

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May 17, 2013
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Ignorant of spiritual matters. God does not want us ignorant of spiritual matters. Paul then (by revelation) spends three chapters discussing spiritual matters, notably the proper use of speaking in tongues, interpretation of tongues, and prophesy.
Paul was endeavoring to enlighten them. They probably needed to obtain a copy of Paul's letter to the Romans. You would know that if you would have read the second half of my post.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 

shrume

Senior Member
Jun 26, 2017
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Paul was endeavoring to enlighten them.
That's right. In 1 Cor 12-14, Paul is enlightening them specifically on spiritual matters.

They probably needed to obtain a copy of Paul's letter to the Romans.
They may very well have done so.

You would know that if you would have read the second half of my post.
I read your entire post.
 

notuptome

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May 17, 2013
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That's right. In 1 Cor 12-14, Paul is enlightening them specifically on spiritual matters.


They may very well have done so.


I read your entire post.
You misconstrue admonishment for endorsement.

They were ignorant of spiritual matters because they were acting like Gentiles carried away unto dumb idols.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
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That's certainly your prerogative.


There is no doubt the Holy Spirit is a gift, given when people hear and believe the gospel.


Again, the gift is the gift of the Holy Spirit. Tongues is not a gift. Interpretation is not a gift. The other seven manifestations are not gifts. They are manifestations of the one gift of the Holy Spirit.

A simple analogy might be if I gave you a light bulb. The gift is the light bulb. That light bulb has two manifestations: light and heat. Light and heat are not gifts, they are manifestations of the gift of the light bulb. If you never screw in the light bulb and turn it on, you will never experience the manifestations of the gift of the light bulb. But you will still have the gift of the light bulb.

the Words "Spiritual Gifts" in the Greek are : spiritual pneumatikos adjective / gifts charisma. noun

you are incorrect in your understanding :) but you have the right to be wrong :)
 

shrume

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Jun 26, 2017
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You misconstrue admonishment for endorsement.
He was correcting them on the proper usage of the manifestations of tongues, interpretation of tongues, and prophesy.

Concerning endorsement:

1 Cor 14:
5) I would that ye all spake with tongues, but rather that ye prophesied: for greater is he that prophesieth than he that speaketh with tongues, except he interpret, that the church may receive edifying.

Paul was "endorsing" both tongues and prophesy.

They were ignorant of spiritual matters because they were acting like Gentiles carried away unto dumb idols.
The Bible never states they were acting like gentiles carried away unto dumb idols.

You're reading your bias into the scriptures.

It says they WERE gentiles, carried away to dumb idols as they were led. Paul then corrects and instructs them on the proper usage of tongues, interpretation, and prophesy.
 

shrume

Senior Member
Jun 26, 2017
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the Words "Spiritual Gifts" in the Greek are : spiritual pneumatikos adjective / gifts charisma. noun
The word "pneumatikos" is not the adjectival form of "charisma". They are two different words meaning two different things.

you are incorrect in your understanding :)
I disagree.

but you have the right to be wrong :)
...as do you.

If you don't mind my saying so, your behavior is ...strange... for a moderator.
 

notuptome

Senior Member
May 17, 2013
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He was correcting them on the proper usage of the manifestations of tongues, interpretation of tongues, and prophesy.

Concerning endorsement:

1 Cor 14:
5) I would that ye all spake with tongues, but rather that ye prophesied: for greater is he that prophesieth than he that speaketh with tongues, except he interpret, that the church may receive edifying.

Paul was "endorsing" both tongues and prophesy.


The Bible never states they were acting like gentiles carried away unto dumb idols.

You're reading your bias into the scriptures.

It says they WERE gentiles, carried away to dumb idols as they were led. Paul then corrects and instructs them on the proper usage of tongues, interpretation, and prophesy.
This merits a CS1 response. LOL

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
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The word "pneumatikos" is not the adjectival form of "charisma". They are two different words meaning two different things.


I disagree.


...as do you.

If you don't mind my saying so, your behavior is ...strange... for a moderator.
lol my behavior in the light of your comments is no concern to you. the context of the Greek is correct . they are two different meaning because they are two different words . the context of the whole chapter and 13 and 14 together that is how they are to be studied. Not cherry picking.
 
Last edited:
Mar 23, 2016
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You have failed to provide Scriptural proof to substantiate your claim that "the semantic nuance/meaning of ‘akarpos’ – it can be used two ways; actively of passively".


With all due respect, your proof is your understanding of the text which, as a tongues speaker, can only have one interpretation. There’s more than one way to interpret any given text.
You are incorrect if you believe "there's more than one way to interpret any given text". That understanding of Scripture results from the lie of the wicked one "did God really say?".




Kavik said:
Obviously, you’re not going to find the kind of “proof” I suspect you’re looking for – I would submit that the meaning, in the context in which it was written and for the audience and historic timeframe it was written for and in, is self-explanatory.
Surely you can provide one example in Scripture of an adjective being used actively or passively (other than your unsubstantiated claim of the use of 'akarpos' in 1 Cor 14:14).




Kavik said:
People tend to automatically look for the supernatural when it comes to interpreting Biblical texts – not saying that’s not there, but sometimes, the text is just describing a very ordinary event/issue, nothing more.
And 1 Cor 12:1 tells us Paul is addressing spiritual matters of which Paul does not want the church ignorant. So this section of Scripture is dealing with spiritual issues.




Kavik said:
Paul’s letter was just that, a letter written by him in response to (presumably) one he had gotten outlining the issues in Corinth, one very real issue being communication within the church. I don’t believe it was ever written with the intention of somehow being supernatural in meaning or conveying some sort of supernatural notion – real issues, real solutions.

Too bad that a copy of the letter Paul initially received wouldn’t somehow come to light – I strongly suspect it would instantly answer the whole “tongues” thing!
Probably not to your satisfaction as you keep insisting something which is not in the text (controlled, observed settings; NCNLUs; shaman's chant, etc.).




Kavik said:
As it is the Spirit Who gives the utterance, the speaker speaks the words the Spirit gives to him/her. Period.

Yes – when one is speaking a real language to a specific audience in a church setting; not at all remotely close to what today’s Pentecostals and Charismatics are doing/producing.
I agree there are some who claim to be speaking in tongues but in reality they are not.

When I refer to speaking in tongues, I am speaking of the genuine manifestation as shown in 1 Cor 12:10.




Kavik said:
The manifestation of speaking in tongues is not just "the ability to speak foreign languages".

The natural ability within each person is not a manifestation of the Spirit as revealed in 1 Cor 12:8-10.


Actually, I believe it is – see above post.
I know. And I believe you are incorrect in your conclusion ... just as you believe I am incorrect in my conclusion.




Kavik said:
I do not believe your "T-speech" is the same as the manifestation of speaking in tongues as revealed in Scripture.

You’re right - No, it’s not at all – again, that’s kind of the point. Modern ‘tongues’ (what Pentecostals and Charismatics are producing today) is not remotely close to what is referred to in the Bible with respect to “tongues”.
Do you agree there are some believers today who do speak in tongues and it is the genuine manifestation of the Spirit as shown in 1 Cor 12?




Kavik said:
The manifestation of speaking in tongues is not the same as what you describe. The manifestation of speaking in tongues is the Spirit giving the words(utterance) to the believer(speaker),

As far as this part goes, yes, as mentioned above, when one is speaking a real language to a specific audience in a church setting.
And what about the audience as shown in 1 Cor 14:28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.




Kavik said:
but the speaker does not understand the words. The words given by the Spirit are not in a language the speaker understands. The speaker is not familiar with the language.

That’s the Charismatic/Pentecostal understanding of the text – it can only be understood this way so what’s being done and produced today can have some sort of Biblical concordance/precedence. But that’s just not the reality of the situation - absolutely nowhere is it even remotely suggested that the speakers do not understand what they are saying.
Please provide the Scriptural reference which indicates the speakers understand what they are saying. Thanks.




Kavik said:
The purpose of the manifestation of speaking in tongues is not for the "speakers to truly listen to what they're actually producing". You keep insisting this is what the believer is to do. Nowhere does Scripture tell us to utilize the manifestation in this manner.

No, I’m not insisting a tongues-speaker has to do this; however, if you really want to know precisely what you are producing and be able to really take a look at it and do a bit of analyzing, yes, I would highly recommend it. You kind of lost me in that last bit- not sure why you would need ‘permission’ to listen to yourself speak (?).

I do not mean this offensively in any way, but as mentioned, there seems to be a strong reluctance in people to record themselves speaking tongues (though, judging by what one can find on things like YouTube, this reluctance doesn’t seem to be shared by everyone!). I sometimes have to wonder if the reluctance is because, on some level, many people are aware, or at least suspect, that what they’re producing just isn’t what it’s supposed to be; it’s not what they were told or led to believe it was – actually hearing themselves and listening to what they are producing would just confirm the suspicion.
Just because I do not listen in the manner you prescribe does not mean I do not listen.

As far as your statement: "You kind of lost me in that last bit- not sure why you would need ‘permission’ to listen to yourself speak (?)"

I believe we are to endeavor to follow Scripture to the best of our ability. When God takes the time to give instruction to us, it is in our best interest to follow His instruction. Where does God tell us to record/analyze the manifestation of tongues? Thanks.
 

shrume

Senior Member
Jun 26, 2017
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lol my behavior in the light of your comments is no concern to you.
...further proof of my observation.

the context of the Greek is correct .
There is no context in which "pneumatikos" is the adjectival form of "charisma".

Pneumatikos means "spiritual things" or "spiritual matters". Charisma means "gift".
 

Iconoclast

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May 27, 2017
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PJW;
Good post, but may I add..."Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered. (Rom 8:26)
This has got to be during personal prayer with God.
you can add that...but it is pure error...in that verse the word.....alaleo....means not a tongue, not a spoken tongue...
 

Iconoclast

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May 27, 2017
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groanings too deep for utterance... too deep for words....stenagmois alaletois...

in other words..this has nothing to do with tongues at all.
 

shrume

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Jun 26, 2017
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groanings too deep for utterance... too deep for words....stenagmois alaletois...

in other words..this has nothing to do with tongues at all.
Agreed. Rom 8:26ff have nothing to do with speaking in tongues.
 

CS1

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May 23, 2012
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...further proof of my observation.


There is no context in which "pneumatikos" is the adjectival form of "charisma".

Pneumatikos means "spiritual things" or "spiritual matters". Charisma means "gift".
No sir the authorial intent as the context means it to be. gifts made known to the fellowship in Corinthian church. spiritual matter if you prefer does not change the context that too would meet the authorial intent. but by it's self unclear . Which brings the other point "Gifts which you said Charisma means, which you also said It does not mean LOL. Even if the PASSAGE SAY IT 4 TIMES IN CHAPTER 12. the Normative has been established . proper exegesis would help you see this clearly.

Have a nice day :)
 

Kavik

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Mar 25, 2017
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CS1 –
so you change the word of God where it says very plainly in chapter 12 of 1cor " Now concerning spiritual gifts".

I have it as “peri de tôn pneumatikôn – “concerning moreover spiritual [things/matters]….”

The word ‘gift’ is not used here, nor is it necessarily implied.

I was going to try and get into some detail, but I think Shrume has summed it up quite nicely. I know we do not agree on some aspects of “tongues”, but the summation and analogy with the lightbulb are spot on.

The word used translates to "spiritual things" - It's hard not to read things into the text, but "gift" just isn't there.

as far as welcome documentation As I said there are .however, those that prove tongues is a real language or those that do not can not change the context of the word of God . Clearly you did not see two of my location which did offer you proof.

If you copied any links, etc., I did not see them.

Faking tongues may be what you did

I’m not Pentecostal nor Charismatic so do not use glossolalia in the Christian sense, though admittedly, I do play a lot with language just to see what I can come up with for sounds, styles of speech and whatnot. I have no doubt that in some circles, what I am doing would be construed as speaking in tongues.

In trying to find any links you posted, I noticed that in one of your posts, you mention that you have asked some linguists or a linguist in particular (?) to make up a language and they could not. Such languages do indeed exist and are called “constructed languages”, or “con-langs” for short. They are actually quite common. Typically their use is relegated to movies (Navi’i in the movie ‘Avatar’, or to go way back, Klingon in the “Star Trek” movies), but some are created with the intent to be artificial languages, replacing normal ones, to be used on an everyday basis where communication is an issue (Esperanto and Interlingua - neither of which really caught on - English is just too powerful and too widely used).

These are all real functioning languages which contain a specific set of sounds, grammar and word order. They are a popular pastime with many linguists, but not everyone can create them; they are, as you might suspect, rather time involved. Here’s a link to quite a number of con-langs that linguists (professional and non-professional alike) have created:

Conlangery - Omniglot forum

Unlike modern tongues, these languages must have a defined set of sounds, rules on how those sounds go together (i.e. what’s allowed for combinations and what’s not allowed), a specific grammar, and a specific syntax (word order). None of which modern tongues have. Many of these con-langs are not intended to be simple to learn; they are rather complex and just as difficult as any real language to learn (oftentimes something like, what if a Bantu language were crossed with a Slavic one? type of deal, but again, unlike tongues, they are real language (though not spoken by “ethnic/native speakers”).