First, let me respond to someone who argued that God doesn't know the future. Then I'll give my own response:
1. God changes his mind (Exodus 32:14, Numbers 14:11)
Exodus 32:14 reads:
And the LORD relented from the disaster that he had spoken of bringing on his people.
Of course God changes his interactions with men as men change in relation to him.
For example, John 3 speaks of unbelievers as being under the "wrath of God," but clearly believers are not under the wrath of God.
The fact that all of us were at one time under the wrath of God but that some of us now are not under the wrath of God does not indicate anything about God's knowledge.
Likewise, the fact that the Israelites were under the wrath of God for some period of time and then God relented in his wrath does not indicate anything about God's knowledge.
This verse is simply irrelevant.
Numbers 14:11 reads:
And the LORD said to Moses, “How long will this people despise me? And how long will they not believe in me, in spite of all the signs that I have done among them?
First of all, if God doesn't know the answer to the question, why would Moses know?
If we are going to take this verse literally, then God must believe that Moses has more information or more knowledge than He does!
Rather, God is simply using common language to express his anger at Israel's stubbornness. He doesn't actually expect Moses to know the answer and inform Him as to what that answer is.
2. God regrets (Genesis 6:6)
Genesis 6:6 reads:
The LORD was sorry that He had made man on the earth, and He was grieved in His heart.
The word for "sorry" doesn't necessarily mean God wished he had done something different. It can simply mean to be pained or to groan. Again, God interacts with persons. As they sin or repent of sin God's attitude towards them changes. The fact that God interacts with us, intellectually as well as emotionally, doesn't necessarily have anything to do with knowledge.
3. God is surprised (Isaiah 5:3-7, Jeremiah 3:6-7)
Concerning Isaiah: the relevant portion of the Isaiah passage is 5:4b - “Why, when I expected it to produce good grapes did it produce worthless ones?"
That God "expected" something doesn't necessarily have anything to do with knowledge.
To "expect" something may also denote a moral standard. For example, I could say "I expect my nephew to read his Bible every day." In this sense of a moral expectation (standard) there is no implication of how much is known or unknown.
Concerning Jeremiah: the relevant portion is 3:7 and says "I thought, ‘After she has done all these things she will return to Me’; but she did not return…"
First, notice that if we take this verse literally then not only does God not know the future
but God also has false beliefs.
But if God has false beliefs, just like us humans, then we all might be in for some big surprises.
For example, God thinks he will defeat Satan at some future time, but that might be a false belief. God thinks he is able to keep us from perishing, but that might be a false belief. God thinks he is the only God, but that might be a false belief. God thinks he created the heavens and the earth, but that might be a false belief.
Basically, if God has false beliefs then we have no guarantee that anything in the Bible is true. After all, whatever God has said might be a product of his false beliefs.
I submit to you that no one, not even the Open Theists like Gregory Boyd, take this passage at face value (or "literally"). In fact, I know that Open Theists like Boyd don't take this verse literally because Boyd has gone on record as saying that God doesn't have false beliefs.
Second, Scripture often uses anthropomorphisms to describe his relationship and interaction with people.
For example, God commonly uses the imagery of a husband and wife to describe his relationship with Israel. God is not literally the husband of Israel… you can't literally marry a nation, you can only marry a person.
Thus, the marriage imagery is anthropomorphic in a sense. But notice that
this is exactly the anthropomorphism God uses in the Jeremiah passage:
Jeremiah 3:1 God says, “If a husband divorces his wife And she goes from him And belongs to another man, Will he still return to her? Will not that land be completely polluted?
Thus, Jeremiah 3:7 is simply carrying on that anthropomorphic relationship in expressing God's expectation. It is not expressing God's false belief that Israel would return.
4. God didn't know what people would do (1 Kings 22:20-22, Jeremiah 7:31)
The 1 Kings passage reads:
“The LORD said, ‘Who will entice Ahab to go up and fall at Ramoth-gilead?’ And one said this while another said that. Then a spirit came forward and stood before the LORD and said, ‘I will entice him.’ “The LORD said to him, ‘How?’ And he said, ‘I will go out and be a deceiving spirit in the mouth of all his prophets.’ Then He said, ‘You are to entice him and also prevail. Go and do so.’
There is nothing in this passage that would require God to have a lack of knowledge. God is simply making a use of common modes of speaking in asking for a person to entice Ahab.
Again, notice that if you are going to take this passage literally and as implying something about God's knowledge (since a literal reading doesn't in itself require it to indicate anything about God's knowledge) then God is not just ignorant about the future, but God is also ignorant about what persons are thinking.
Jeremiah 7:31 reads:
“They have built the high places of Topheth, which is in the valley of the son of Hinnom, to burn their sons and their daughters in the fire, which I did not command, and it did not come into My mind.
What does it mean to say "it did not come into My mind"? Earlier in Israel's history God had explicitly forbid child sacrifice:
Leviticus 18:21 You shall not give any of your children to offer them to Molech, and so profane the name of your God: I am the LORD.
So clearly the practice DID enter God's mind.
The word for "mind" here is actually "heart" and can refer to the intentions. Thus, in light of Lev. 18:21, which clearly indicates that God was cognitively aware of child sacrifice, the verse is better understood as saying that God did not intend for Israel to practice child sacrifice.
Again, notice that if we take Jeremiah 7:31 as trying to communicate something about God's knowledge, then God is ignorant of human intentions (he did not know that the Israelites intended to sacrifice their children). Yet this is a case in which we have clear statements to the contrary:
1 Kings 8:39 ...for you, you only, know the hearts of all the children of mankind
Acts 1:24 “You, Lord, who know the hearts of all…"
So if we take Jeremiah 7:31 to be a literal statement about what God is intellectually aware of, then 1 Kings 8:39 and Acts 1:24 would be obviously false (or else Jeremiah 7:31 would be obviously false). But there is no need to understand "come into my mind" as an epistemic statement. As I pointed out, it can be understood as an intentional statement and, thereby, be in harmony with 1 Kings 8:39 and Acts 1:24.
5. God tests people to see what they will do (Genesis 22:12,Exodus 16:4, Deuteronomy 8:2)
First, notice that, if these passages indicate God's ignorance, then they do not speak to God's ignorance about the
future, but God's ignorance about the
present.
Also notice that, if these passages indicate God's ignorance, they indicate that God is ignorant of people's
hearts.
But Scripture clearly affirms that God does know the content of people's hearts.
Psalm 139:1–6 O LORD, you have searched me and known me! You know when I sit down and when I rise up; you discern my thoughts from afar. You search out my path and my lying down and are acquainted with all my ways. Even before a word is on my tongue, behold, O LORD, you know it altogether. You hem me in, behind and before, and lay your hand upon me. Such knowledge is too wonderful for me; it is high; I cannot attain it.
1 Kings 8:39 ...for you, you only, know the hearts of all the children of mankind
Acts 1:24 “You, Lord, who know the hearts of all…"
So if we take these passages (Gen. 22:12; Ex. 16:4; Deut. 8:2) in the way you are suggesting, then either one or the other set of passages must be false. They cannot both be true.
It cannot be the case that God knows the hearts of men, yet does not know the hearts of men.
But in fact the set of passages you list does not explicitly say that God is in anyway ignorant of the truth concerning these matters.
As John Frame points out, the language of God finding out facts occurs in judicial contexts; situations in which God is going to bring it about that the heart manifest it's state in order that he may pass judgment. This is more obvious by the "testing" language.
Thus, it's not that God is ignorant of the facts (the verses cited earlier clearly state that he isn't), but that God is conducting a sort of divine trial in which he makes manifest the inward state of the person/s before proclaiming his verdict.
As John Piper states, "God has not created the world just to be known in terms of what would be if tests were given. He created the world to be actualized in history. That is, he wills not just to foreknow, but to know by observation and experience. That is the point of creating a real world, rather than just knowing one that might be. Therefore, may not God truly know what Abraham is going to do, and yet want to externalize that in a test that enables him to know it by observation, not just prognostication? 'Now I know,' thus may be, 'Now I see . . . now I experience by observation of your real action.'"
6. God shows having uncertainty about future (Exodus 4:9,Exodus 13:17, Numbers 14:11, Hosea 8:5)
Concerning Exodus 4:9 and 13:17, neither verse says that God doesn't know whether or not the thing will happen. In 4:9, for instance, it is possible that God knows they will not believe, but simply chooses not to reveal this to Moses.
I've experienced similar situations in helping my nephew with his homework. Sometimes he doesn't know how to solve a problem so he asks me for help. Even though I know how to solve it and what the answer is I don't want to simply tell him. Instead I say "Maybe it is this. If so you should see such and such…" Thus, I see nothing in the language of the passages that necessitates God's ignorance.
I already addressed Numbers 14:11.
Concerning Hosea 8:5, I could give the same reductio ad absurdum that I gave to Numbers 14:11 since both simply involve a question.
You infer from the fact that a question is asked by God that God must be ignorant of the answer. But we know from other Scripture that this is not the case.
Consider John 18:3,4 "Judas then, having received the Roman cohort and officers from the chief priests and the Pharisees, came there with lanterns and torches and weapons. So Jesus,
knowing all the things that were coming upon Him, went forth and said to them, 'Whom do you seek?'"
Clearly Jesus knew they were seeking him. John also makes it clear earlier that Jesus knew Judas was going to betray him.
Therefore, the fact that God asks a question is not sufficient to demonstrate God is ignorant of the answer.
In summary, all of the verses you cite can be explained as (a) figures of common speech, which don't necessitate a lack of knowledge, (b) anthropomorphisms, (c) or simply irrelevant.
If we assume you are right and that these verses, taken at face value, do indicate God is not all-knowing then we are led into many absurdities.
For example, we read in Exodus 4:2 “The Lord said to him, 'What is that in your hand?' He said, 'A staff.' ”
So, if we are going to be consistent with your method of interpreting Scripture at such a surface level, not only is God ignorant of the future, but he is almost a complete idiot since he can't even discern a staff when he sees one.
Was God really like "Derrrrr, what's that stick thingy in your hand??"
Not only does God lack knowledge, but God has
false beliefs.
Thus, the method of reasoning which leads you to say that these texts indicate God has a lack of knowledge leads to complete absurdities. It simply cannot be consistently applied, unless God is going to turn out to be a complete doofus.
But Scripture plainly teaches that God knows all things, including the future. In fact, God's knowledge of the future is one of those things which distinguishes him from false gods (see Isaiah 41:21-23; 42:9; 43:9-12; 44:7; 46:10; 48:3-7). To deny God's foreknowledge is to reduce him to a one of the worthless pagan gods.