The King James Bible

[eternally-gratefull]

Mark 16 NEVER suggests that believers follow after those signs; rather that the signs follow after believers.
Mark 16 accords well with Paul's snake bite after he was shipwreked on Malta.
It also accords well with the martyrdom of Hermias of Comana on whom scalding and poisoning were both unsuccessfully attempted.

Those people who handle snakes or ingest poisons intentionally ate putting God to the test.

Matt 4:5-7
5 Then the devil took him to the holy city and set him on the pinnacle of the temple
6 and said to him, "If you are the Son of God, throw yourself down, for it is written, "'He will command his angels concerning you,' and "'On their hands they will bear you up, lest you strike your foot against a stone.'"
7 Jesus said to him, "Again it is written, 'You shall not put the Lord your God to the test.'"
ESV


IMO Mark 16 was intended to assure people who were experiencing persecution that God is still in control.

we will have to agree to disagree on this brother. What you say MAY be true, But because it MAY be true, does not mean it is..

another one of those when we get to heaven we will find out things.

 

[FlyingDove]

More nonsense.

What I am stating -- as a matter of fact -- is that the modern versions are based upon CORRUPTED Hebrew and Greek texts whereas the Reformation Bibles (KJV included) are not. See my post above on the corruption of the Greek NT.

KJV this, KJV that, KJV for President.

Is the KJV it a good translation? I think so. Is it the worlds only source/version that contains God breathed inspiration? I DON'T THINK SO!

Believers are positionality, in Christ. They have the Holy Spirit dwelling inside them. If we'll reverently open scripture with prayer and devotion. We can/will discern what the Spirit intends. King James Version or no King James version.

2 Timothy 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:” (KJV)

Hebrews 4:12 For the word of God is quick, and powerful, and sharper than any twoedged sword, piercing even to the dividing asunder of soul and spirit, and of the joints and marrow, and is a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart. (KJV)

Proverbs 30:5 Every word of God is pure: he is a shield unto them that put their trust in him. (KJV)

Hebrews 11:6 But without faith it is impossible to please him: for he that cometh to God must believe that he is, and that he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him. (KJV)

Simple test, to put this discussion to rest:

Where in scripture does God say the KJV is perfect, or even is the best source of truth? Chapter & verse please.

If you can't provide the scripture. Then, all that's left is the usual: Because Nehemiah6 said so. Good luck with that.

 

[FlyingDove]

There's no call for insults. You tried to present a conflict between the KJV and Tyndale, Coverdale, Matthew's, Bishop's, Geneva, etc. when they all are in the same family as the KJV. In fact you introduced a red herring to deflect from the real issue. So that was indeed off topic.

Now that you have seen the source of corruption for the critical texts and the modern versions, its time to man up and admit that you are in favor of corrupted Bibles.

Nehemiah6, If there is NO conflict between KJV and Tyndale, Coverdale, Matthew's, Geneva. Please explain the conflict found between KJV & the other 4 mentioned found in 2 Thessalonians 2:3.

KJV translates this verse wrong:

1611 King James Bible
2 Thessalonians 2:3 (B) for that day shall not come, """except there come a falling away first""" and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;

All 4 pre 1611 Bible translations state departure. No falling away/apostasy mentioned

1599 Geneva Bible
2 Thessalonians 2:3 (B) for that day shall not come, """except there come a departing first""", and that man of sin be disclosed, even the son of perdition.

1526 Tyndale Bible
2 Thessalonians 2:3 (B) ""the lorde commeth not excepte ther come a departynge fyrst"" and that that synfnll man be opened ye sonne of perdicion

1537 Matthews Bible
2 Thessalonians 2:3 (B) ""the Lord cometh not/except ther come a departure"" that the sinfull man opened/the son of perdition

Miles Coverdale Bible (1535)
2 Thes 2:3 Let noman disceaue you by eny meanes. For the LORD commeth not, ""except the departynge come 1st"" and that that Man of synne be opened, euen the sonne of perdicion,

1540 The Great Bible
2 Thessalonians 2:3 (B) ""the lord comes not except a departure first"", and the sinfull man be showed, son of perdition,


2 Thessalonians 2:7 For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: """only he which now withholdeth""", shall let till he be taken out of the way.

(NOTE: It's the Holy Spirit Who lives/dwells within each believer that is withholding/restraining the son of perdition/man of sins arrival.

When Christ's Holy Spirit filled Body of Christ/Church departs/is caught-up/raptured. Then no restraints for sin remain. The man of sin will have ZERO to restrain him.

The NT Body of Christ/Church DEPARTS = is caught-up/raptured & delivered for the coming wrath. The man of sin is then revealed, and the coming wrath for a rebellious, Christ rejecting, unbelieving world will begin.

 

[Nehemiah6]

Nehemiah6, If there is NO conflict between KJV and Tyndale, Coverdale, Matthew's, Geneva. Please explain the conflict found between KJV & the other 4 mentioned found in 2 Thessalonians 2:3.

The apparent contradiction is easily resolved by examining the Greek word apostasia:

Strong's Concordance

apostasia: defection, revolt​

Original Word: ἀποστασία, ας, ἡ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine
Transliteration: apostasia
Phonetic Spelling: (ap-os-tas-ee'-ah)
Short Definition: defection, apostasy
Definition: defection, apostasy, revolt.

HELPS Word-studies
646 apostasía (from 868 /aphístēmi, "leave, depart," which is derived from 575 /apó, "away from" and 2476/histémi, "stand") – properly, departure (implying desertion); apostasy – literally, "a leaving, from a previous standing."

So the KJV is more accurate with "falling away" since "departure" leaves some ambiguity.

 

[FlyingDove]

The apparent contradiction is easily resolved by examining the Greek word apostasia:

Strong's Concordance

apostasia: defection, revolt​

Original Word: ἀποστασία, ας, ἡ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine
Transliteration: apostasia
Phonetic Spelling: (ap-os-tas-ee'-ah)
Short Definition: defection, apostasy
Definition: defection, apostasy, revolt.

HELPS Word-studies
646 apostasía (from 868 /aphístēmi, "leave, depart," which is derived from 575 /apó, "away from" and 2476/histémi, "stand") – properly, departure (implying desertion); apostasy – literally, "a leaving, from a previous standing."

So the KJV is more accurate with "falling away" since "departure" leaves some ambiguity.

Then you were wrong here:.

Originally Posted by Nehemiah6

There's no call for insults. You tried to present a conflict between the KJV and Tyndale, Coverdale, Matthew's, Bishop's, Geneva, etc. when they all are in the same family as the KJV.

So, which is it? Either way you're WRONG again.

 

[Lucy-Pevensie]

There's no call for insults.

Pot. Kettle. Black.

 

[Nehemiah6]

So, which is it? Either way you're WRONG again.

BOTH "departure" and "falling away" are valid. You could call it "departure from the truth" or "falling away from the truth" and I already showed you the meanings of apostasia. So the one who is wrong is you for not bothering to read and study the meanings of apostasia.

 

[FlyingDove]

BOTH "departure" and "falling away" are valid. You could call it "departure from the truth" or "falling away from the truth" and I already showed you the meanings of apostasia. So the one who is wrong is you for not bothering to read and study the meanings of apostasia.

1st none say, departure from the truth. You made that up GEEZZZ!

2ndly: So, all 4 scholors are wrong & you're right. Got it LOL!

Still waiting on the scripture for this question:

Where in scripture does God say the KJV is perfect, or even is the best source of truth? Chapter & verse please.

If you can't provide the scripture. Then, all that's left is the usual: Because Nehemiah6 said so. Good luck with that.

 

[FlyingDove]

BOTH "departure" and "falling away" are valid. You could call it "departure from the truth" or "falling away from the truth" and I already showed you the meanings of apostasia. So the one who is wrong is you for not bothering to read and study the meanings of apostasia.

The post began, KJV got 2 Thes 2:3 wrong

There are over 20 Greek words that translate to depart.

The 4 Bible's I posted fron used ἀποχωρέω, apochoreo

"to depart from" is also translated in Matthew 7:23 ; Luke 9:39 ; Acts 13:13 as well

Its you who that's wrong again. For worshiping a Bible version. And for not bothering to read & study.

 

[James37]

Couldn't find the post in reference to this information. I will add that if you take 157 and convert it to base 12 you get 111.

“For there are three that bear record heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.” 1 John 5:7 (157)




“For” 749th (7 x 107) verse in the NT. (case)


“there” 455th (37 x 55) time this word occurs in the NT.


“three” 471st (3 x 157) time this word occurs in the Bible and this is the 417th (139 x 3) verse that contains this word. The number 157 is the 37th prime number and 157 + 139 = 37 x 8


“that” 9731st (37 x 263) verse in the Bible containing this word.


“bear record” this phrase occurs 3 times in the Bible.


“in heaven” 56th (7 x 8) occurrence of this phrase in the NT.


“the Father” 182nd (7 x 26) verse in the Bible containing this phrase.


“Father” 222nd (37 x 3 x 2) verse in the NT containing this word. (case)


“Father” 343rd (7 x 7 x 7) time this word occurs in the NT. (any case)


“the Word” 126th (3 x 7 x 3 x 2) verse in the NT that contains this phrase.


“the Word” 462nd (3 x 77 x 2) time this phrase occurs in the Bible.


“the Holy” 273rd (3 x 7 x 13) time this phrase occurs in the Bible.


“three” 411th (137 x 3) verse in the Bible that contains this word. (case)


“are” 2422nd (173 x 7 x 2) verse in the the Bible that contains this word.


“one” 1939th (7 x 772) time this word occurs in the Bible.

You didn't look very hard!

 

[Nehemiah6]

1st none say, departure from the truth. You made that up GEEZZZ!

2ndly: So, all 4 scholors are wrong & you're right. Got it LOL!

Quite obviously you have no clue about the apostasy. It is a departure from the truth, which is the same as a falling away from the truth.

Still waiting on the scripture for this question:

Where in scripture does God say the KJV is perfect, or even is the best source of truth? Chapter & verse please.

If you can't provide the scripture. Then, all that's left is the usual: Because Nehemiah6 said so. Good luck with that.

Dumb questions need not be dignified with an answer.

 

[Nehemiah6]

The post began, KJV got 2 Thes 2:3 wrong

There are over 20 Greek words that translate to depart.

The 4 Bible's I posted fron used ἀποχωρέω, apochoreo

"to depart from" is also translated in Matthew 7:23 ; Luke 9:39 ; Acts 13:13 as well

The 20 Greek words have no bearing on this matter. The only Greek word you should try and comprehend (which you still have not done) is APOSTASIA.

Its you who that's wrong again. For worshiping a Bible version. And for not bothering to read & study.

This is about as absurd and childish as you can get. I believe you are the one who needs to study diligently and stop making foolish remarks.

 

[FlyingDove]

The 20 Greek words have no bearing on this matter. The only Greek word you should try and comprehend (which you still have not done) is APOSTASIA.

This is about as absurd and childish as you can get. I believe you are the one who needs to study diligently and stop making foolish remarks.

The foolishness is found in your abject scriptural ignorance. Because you say so, WHAT A JOKE!

 

[FlyingDove]

[/B]Quite obviously you have no clue about the apostasy. It is a departure from the truth, which is the same as a falling away from the truth.


Dumb questions need not be dignified with an answer.

So, NO scripture to back up you position. GOT it! Because you say so again. Got It! WAHT A JOKE YOU ARE!

 

[James37]

Nehemiah6, If there is NO conflict between KJV and Tyndale, Coverdale, Matthew's, Geneva. Please explain the conflict found between KJV & the other 4 mentioned found in 2 Thessalonians 2:3.

KJV translates this verse wrong:

1611 King James Bible
2 Thessalonians 2:3 (B) for that day shall not come, """except there come a falling away first""" and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;

All 4 pre 1611 Bible translations state departure. No falling away/apostasy mentioned

1599 Geneva Bible
2 Thessalonians 2:3 (B) for that day shall not come, """except there come a departing first""", and that man of sin be disclosed, even the son of perdition.

1526 Tyndale Bible
2 Thessalonians 2:3 (B) ""the lorde commeth not excepte ther come a departynge fyrst"" and that that synfnll man be opened ye sonne of perdicion

1537 Matthews Bible
2 Thessalonians 2:3 (B) ""the Lord cometh not/except ther come a departure"" that the sinfull man opened/the son of perdition

Miles Coverdale Bible (1535)
2 Thes 2:3 Let noman disceaue you by eny meanes. For the LORD commeth not, ""except the departynge come 1st"" and that that Man of synne be opened, euen the sonne of perdicion,

1540 The Great Bible
2 Thessalonians 2:3 (B) ""the lord comes not except a departure first"", and the sinfull man be showed, son of perdition,


2 Thessalonians 2:7 For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: """only he which now withholdeth""", shall let till he be taken out of the way.

(NOTE: It's the Holy Spirit Who lives/dwells within each believer that is withholding/restraining the son of perdition/man of sins arrival.

When Christ's Holy Spirit filled Body of Christ/Church departs/is caught-up/raptured. Then no restraints for sin remain. The man of sin will have ZERO to restrain him.

The NT Body of Christ/Church DEPARTS = is caught-up/raptured & delivered for the coming wrath. The man of sin is then revealed, and the coming wrath for a rebellious, Christ rejecting, unbelieving world will begin.

"falling away" is the correct translation. This is an apostasy and not the rapture. Study all forms of the word "fall" in the King James Bible and you find that this is not a positive thing. As believers in Jesus Christ we are admonished to "stand"! (Ephesians 6:13)

 

[FlyingDove]

"falling away" is the correct translation. This is an apostasy and not the rapture. Study all forms of the word "fall" in the King James Bible and you find that this is not a positive thing. As believers in Jesus Christ we are admonished to "stand"! (Ephesians 6:13)

The sower parable predicts many will fall away. People have been falling away since the Acts 2 Holy Spirit outpouring. People will continue to fall away until the Church DEPARTS!

I have given 4 respected pre 1611 translators, that translate DEPARTURE, not falling away. You & Nehemiah6 are entitled to believe & in his case worship the KJV. I've given supporting scripture for my position.

James, I respectfully disagree with your reply. And with disdain, I disagree will Nehemiah6.

 

[James37]

The sower parable predicts many will fall away. People have been falling away since the Acts 2 Holy Spirit outpouring. People will continue to fall away until the Church DEPARTS!

I have given 4 respected pre 1611 translators, that translate DEPARTURE, not falling away. You & Nehemiah6 are entitled to believe & in his case worship the KJV. I've given supporting scripture for my position.

James, I respectfully disagree with your reply. And with disdain, I disagree will Nehemiah6.

Well I respectfully disagree with you as well.

The "rapture" you speak of is the "gathering" of verse 1 and not some departure in verse 3. The "departure" of verse 3 is an apostasy which is logically connected (and function) to the revealing of the "man of sin."

 

[FlyingDove]

Well I respectfully disagree with you as well.

The "rapture" you speak of is the "gathering" of verse 1 and not some departure in verse 3. The "departure" of verse 3 is an apostasy which is logically connected (and function) to the revealing of the "man of sin."

The rapture is in 1 Thes 4. We are discussing 2 Thes 2. The day of Christ is when he returns. The rapture/DEPATRURE of the Church &, then the revealing of the man of sin must take place before the 1000 yr reign/Day of Christ can begin.

 

[James37]

The rapture is in 1 Thes 4. We are discussing 2 Thes 2. The day of Christ is when he returns. The rapture/DEPATRURE of the Church &, then the revealing of the man of sin must take place before the 1000 yr reign/Day of Christ can begin.

"Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him," (2 Thessaloninas 2:1)

Two events are being addressed by Paul. A "coming" and a "gathering" Is not the "our" in verse 1 a reference to the people of the church in Thessalonia? In other words whoever is reading the epistle?

Am I mistaken because I thought you were an advocate that the phrase "falling away" is a reference to the rapture?

 

[CS1]

the King James is the word of God tranlated into English BUT the Holy Spirit is able to speak to anyone in any language