Who says that?LOL! The one that stops believing is also one that "believeth not"! "Believeth not" is the larger group that includes those who have never believed.
Who says that?LOL! The one that stops believing is also one that "believeth not"! "Believeth not" is the larger group that includes those who have never believed.
That's confusing... again, how long must a person stop believing?So, if Jesus' words are meant for discipleship and not salvation . . .
Then in John 3 when Jesus talks to Nicodemus about being born again, he is talking about discipleship and not salvation.
And John 3:16 is about discipleship and not salvation? And so what then - Do you believe Jesus was promoting some type of a works religion?
You effectively "made no sense" just now.
Very true. Also it says "because hath not believed on the name of the begotten son". And when he hasn't, he hasn't just failed to endure to end, but he never believed.You effectively "made no sense" just now.
You effectively "made no sense" just now.
That's confusing... again, how long must a person stop believing?
Very true. Also it says "because hath not believed on the name of the begotten son". And when he hasn't, he hasn't just failed to endure to end, but he never believed.
5 minutes, 5 days or 5 years. What difference does it make. If you die as a unbeliever does how long matter?That's confusing... again, how long must a person stop believing?
Must stop believing to lose salvationNow you are being confusing?? I have not been asking anyone to stop believing! Why would I be saying that someone must stop believing?
Can a believer become an unbeliever in your opinion?5 minutes, 5 days or 5 years. What difference does it make. If you die as a unbeliever does how long matter?
(1) You interpreted "because he hath not believed" to "he didn't endure to the end", because you say it's possible he once believed, but stopped. But the Greek says "because not he has believed". Therefore it's clear the Greek says he NEVER believed.I assume you are referring to John 3:18:
KJV - "because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God"
The "believed" is perfect tense = because he did not believe in past time with ongoing results
Two questions: (1) How does that verse say: "he hasn't just failed to endure to end, but he never believed"?
(2) You said earlier that Jesus' words are about discipleship and not salvation - but now you seem to be arguing salvation issues here?
Can a believer become an unbeliever in your opinion?
Really? I think "that I can come into and out of belief on my own"? That's interesting! LOL!![]()
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I suppose as is often the case on CC it depends how you interpret an other's words.
I actually believe that we come to believe through the working of God's grace in our hearts which allows us to respond in faith to Him.
According to the Greek, it's not possibleYes, If a believer ceases to believe then he is an unbeliever.
Correct! That's faith!That faith is not yours, it is not innate, not inherent. It is supernatural. Very supernatural.![]()
Of course. It's through the free will doctrine you teach. But the thing is bro, you attempt to go Solus Christus with it all by making it that Christ brought you to some point of decision, and that your decision (free will faith decision) clinched the salvation. YOu cannot have it both ways, either salvation is all of God or it is not.
Correct to a point, but I am not misinterpreting your words or beliefs here if I recall correctly.
Yes, but you believe it is free will choosing.
You realize faith is a gift, right, or no, to you it was innate?
That faith is not yours, it is not innate, not inherent. It is supernatural. Very supernatural.![]()