Daniel's 70 weeks correctly interpreted (in my opinion)
- Thread starter delirious
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I'm not exactly sure I know what your'e saying but here is my view. I think the first resurrection started (it is not complete yet) when Christ and the Old Testament saints were raised.
I'm not sure what you mean by "his earthly ministry, 3.5y, ranther than AFTER His death". The way I see it, his earthly ministry didn't end until he ascended.
I'm not sure what you mean by "his earthly ministry, 3.5y, ranther than AFTER His death". The way I see it, his earthly ministry didn't end until he ascended.
And what I was saying about the words "at the END OF THE DAYS" (re: Daniel's being told he will "stand in thy lot" then) refers to "at the END OF THE DAYS" just referred to in that context (i.e. at the end of what Daniel 12:6-7 Q&A referred to, which is a very specific set of days [1260 days in duration, from a SPECIFIC Point A to a SPECIFIC Point B], and which Q was ASKED in view of what was just described in verses 1-4)--so it is THAT SEQUENCE (and THAT "END of the days" [referred to there]) that I am saying does not jive with your viewpoint, as I see it. 
Your viewpoint jumbles the chronology stated here.
Your viewpoint jumbles the chronology stated here.
^ EDIT: when you said "rose with Christ" do you mean His Resurrection Day, on Firstfruit? Or are you referring to His VISIBLE ascension day, some 10 days before Shavuot/Pentecost per Acts 1 (40 days after His "[active] ascension" ON FF/His Resurrection Day)? Which?
I was showing the Hosea 5:15-6:3 passage about the "two days / in the third day" (re: Israel) and you said that occurred when He rose (I assume you meant, when He arose from the dead [ON FF], right?) So, according to you, Daniel "rose" then too, which is "at the END OF THE DAYS" of that context. Not the middle, not the beginning... etc
I was showing the Hosea 5:15-6:3 passage about the "two days / in the third day" (re: Israel) and you said that occurred when He rose (I assume you meant, when He arose from the dead [ON FF], right?) So, according to you, Daniel "rose" then too, which is "at the END OF THE DAYS" of that context. Not the middle, not the beginning... etc
And what I was saying about the words "at the END OF THE DAYS" (re: Daniel's being told he will "stand in thy lot" then) refers to "at the END OF THE DAYS" just referred to in that context (i.e. at the end of what Daniel 12:6-7 Q&A referred to, which is a very specific set of days [1260 days in duration, from a SPECIFIC Point A to a SPECIFIC Point B], and which Q was ASKED in view of what was just described in verses 1-4)--so it is THAT SEQUENCE (and THAT "END of the days") that I am saying does not jive with your viewpoint, as I see it.
In Daniel 12:7 Daniel is given two things to show the timing. 1) time, times and an half 2) "when he shall have accomplished to scatter the power of the holy people.
So to understand what "time, times and an half" all we have to know is - When was Israel's power scattered? Or another way to put it, when was the kingdom taken from Israel?
I understand the end of the age to be in regards to the current age in which Satan is the ruler of this world, and will continue to be so until the end of the beasts reign, at which time the Lord will then commence to reign on the earth. The Lord commencing to reign at the end of the beasts time, times, and half time is corroborated in Daniel 7, 12, and Revelation 12.
Okay, so Daniel "stand in thy lot" did not happen on Jesus' Resurrection Day, then (according to your viewpoint)? but a bit later?? (like, surrounding the 70ad events? or something?) Make up your mind.
Old English hlot "object used to determine someone's share" (anything from dice to straw, but often a chip of wood with a name inscribed on it), also "what falls to a person by lot
Wait a sec, do you mean Jesus' "resurrection" occurred [past tense from our perspective] on TWO SEPARATE "firstfruits"? (If by chance [wild stab, on my part] you are referring to 1Cor15:20 or verse 23, they [the words] are "firstfruit [singular]" each, regarding Him.)
https://biblehub.com/text/1_corinthians/15-20.htm
https://biblehub.com/text/1_corinthians/15-23.htm
https://biblehub.com/text/1_corinthians/15-20.htm
https://biblehub.com/text/1_corinthians/15-23.htm
Here's how I understand it (and I agree with this, found at Bible Hub under "lot"):
[quoting]
"also ׳עָמַד לְג Daniel 12:13, of allotted portion, share, in the Messianic consummation"
[quoting]
"also ׳עָמַד לְג Daniel 12:13, of allotted portion, share, in the Messianic consummation"
No I mean Christ the firstfuitS means Jesus and others. If Jesus was the only one he would have been called Christ the firstfruit with no S.
Notice the verse says that Christ has become the firsfuitS of them that SLEPT.... Slept means they were sleeping but are not sleeping any more. They rose and ascended with Christ and are with him now.
1Co 15:20 But now is Christ risen from the dead, and become the firstfruits of them that slept.
Notice the verse says that Christ has become the firsfuitS of them that SLEPT.... Slept means they were sleeping but are not sleeping any more. They rose and ascended with Christ and are with him now.
1Co 15:20 But now is Christ risen from the dead, and become the firstfruits of them that slept.
But I just showed (in the links) where the word "firstfruit," in the Greek, is in the SINGULAR. (He is "firstfruit [singular] of those [plural] having fallen asleep"). This is not to say that He didn't take someone "with [G4862]" Him. Elsewhere (throughout the epistles) it tells precisely who... (and I'm referring to His "[ACTIVE] ascension" ON FF/His Resurrection Day; those "many" who were raised on that same day, specifically [we are told] went into Jerusalem… but He Himself was busy Elsewhere )
)