Many people embrace the fact that God has an elect people, but, they limit God's grace by saying his elect are those that he saw, by his foreknowledge, that would seek him. Psalms 53:2-3 says that God looked down on the children of men, to see if there were any that did understand, that did seek God. Every one of them is gone back; they are altogether become filthy; there is none that doeth good, no, not one. Isa 64:6, But we are all as an unclean thing, and all our righteousness are as filthy rags. We all are by nature depraved and have no righteousness of our own except the imputed righteousness of Christ and that is given to us in the new birth. 1 Cor 2:14 says that the natural man cannot discern spiritual things until he is born of the Spirit.
God's foreknowledge
- Thread starter ForestGreenCook
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LOL! Just found this thread - we are all trying to get our own points across to one another - and mostly we spout out verses and words without listening to the other one.
So I will try to listen since this is your thread . . .
You keep bringing up Psalm 53:2-3, so what are you trying to say?
(1) Do you mean that God's elect are really all the world that has chosen their own way?
(2) Or do you mean that God elects both the righteous and the unrighteous?
(3) Or are you in a roundabout way trying to disprove election all together?
So maybe I am an dunce and don't get it yet, but I really am not sure what you are trying to prove by the Scriptures you quote: Can you please explain?
So I will try to listen since this is your thread . . .
You keep bringing up Psalm 53:2-3, so what are you trying to say?
(1) Do you mean that God's elect are really all the world that has chosen their own way?
(2) Or do you mean that God elects both the righteous and the unrighteous?
(3) Or are you in a roundabout way trying to disprove election all together?
So maybe I am an dunce and don't get it yet, but I really am not sure what you are trying to prove by the Scriptures you quote: Can you please explain?
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I believe Psalm 52:2-3 … I just do not believe your interpretation.
When we neglect the first verse of the psalm and infer that vss 2-3 speak of all mankind, we are in error.
When we include vs 1 in our reading of vss 2-3, we understand that David wrote about a certain man by the name of Doeg the Edomite.
If we then read the passage about which David wrote Psalm 52, we see that Doeg the Edomite was a wicked man who killed 85 priests.
To understand Psalm 52, go back and read 1 Samuel 21:1-10 and 1 Samuel 22:6-23.
When we neglect the first verse of the psalm and infer that vss 2-3 speak of all mankind, we are in error.
When we include vs 1 in our reading of vss 2-3, we understand that David wrote about a certain man by the name of Doeg the Edomite.
If we then read the passage about which David wrote Psalm 52, we see that Doeg the Edomite was a wicked man who killed 85 priests.
To understand Psalm 52, go back and read 1 Samuel 21:1-10 and 1 Samuel 22:6-23.
I believe Psalm 53:2-3 … I just do not believe your interpretation.
Psalm 53:1 The fool hath said in his heart
Notice there are two types spoken of in Psalm 53:
1) the fool who says in his heart "there is no God" (vs 1).
2) His people (vs 4).
It is the fool who says in his heart "there is no God". It is the fool who does not seek God (vs 2). It is the fool who is filthy and does no good (vs 3).
God's people (vs 4) are devoured by those who are fools (vs 1), who do not seek God (vs 2) and are filthy and do no good (vs 3).
Psalm 53:1 The fool hath said in his heart
Notice there are two types spoken of in Psalm 53:
1) the fool who says in his heart "there is no God" (vs 1).
2) His people (vs 4).
It is the fool who says in his heart "there is no God". It is the fool who does not seek God (vs 2). It is the fool who is filthy and does no good (vs 3).
God's people (vs 4) are devoured by those who are fools (vs 1), who do not seek God (vs 2) and are filthy and do no good (vs 3).
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John 6; 38 For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me. 39 This is the will of the Father who sent Me, that of all He has given Me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up at the last day. 40 And this is the will of Him who sent Me, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in Him may have everlasting life; and I will raise him up at the last day.”
Thanks for your inquiry. I believe that God choose an elect people before the foundation of the world because of what he saw by his foreknowledge (Psalms 53) that no one would seek him in their depraved nature. God choose an exact amount to be his elect, but not all mankind. Jacob is representative of all of Gods elect people. God chanced Jacob"s name to be no more called Jacob, but to be called Israel (Gen 32:28). God instructed his apostles to go and preach to the lost sheep (God's children) of the house of Israel (his elect), which includes both Jews and gentiles. They were not lost eternally, but they were lost to the knowledge of what Christ had accomplished. There is a deliverance (salvation) here in time when God's eternally saved people come unto a knowledge of the truth. We are all born into this world as natural man (1 Cor 2:14) until God gives his elect the indwelling of the Holy Spirit (Eph 2:5), I believe these scriptures harmonize to be the doctrine that Jesus taught. Most of the time when the scriptures have reference to Israel it is talking about God's elect people, both Jews and gentiles. In John 6 it tells us that Christ died for all of those that God gave him. The ones that he died for was all of God's elect and not all mankind. I probably have difficulty in expressing my thoughts, so if you want further explanation, let me know.
When God, by his foreknowledge, saw the depravity of man ( we are all like Doeg the Edomite until God regenerates us). Eph 2 explains this depraved nature that we all had before he regenerated his elect. When God speaks of the wicked, he is speaking of our depraved nature that we still carry with us in regeneration, this is explained by Paul in the Galatians letter.