Born Again Speaking in Tongues

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notuptome

Senior Member
May 17, 2013
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In shorter form your answer = "No." :)

However, those who like to subvert the scriptures could post almost any verse they wanted to, claiming it answers the question...then claim they used the word to answer.

You'd said you'd never heard a question that couldn't be answered by use of scripture alone. Now you have been presented with one. If you wanted to, you could receive this truth, and go on to learn that there are MANY questions that aren't answerable by scripture alone. The answer to these questions is in God and in truth, neither of which are fully contained in the bible.

And no, this isn't an attempt to start a debate. It's just a truth presented for those with ears to hear. I pray you will be one of them.

Love in Jesus,
Kelby
Very dangerous heresy. Place your truth above Gods truth as revealed in the word of God. Downright frightening. You have truth that God did not include in His word makes you on a higher level than God?

John 16:13 reveals that God operates through His word by the Holy Spirit.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 

notuptome

Senior Member
May 17, 2013
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Something just occurred to me.

Jesus asked the Pharisees what was Johns baptism. Of men or of God? I always wondered what He meant.

If it was a different baptism that was the sign of Messiah to come, then the question to them makes perfect sense.

I still need to know for certainty.
John answered the question stating that he baptized with water but Jesus would baptize with the Holy Spirit a baptism that no man could administer. Johns baptism was of men and Jesus baptism was only of God.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
Am thinking that Johns baptism of water before Jesus died and resurrected could of been “for” remission of sin. The reason being animal sacrifices never gave freedom beyond that one year and had to be repeated. Plus Johns baptism might have been a different baptism. I want to further explore this. The reason I say this is because they had many washings. Johns was the preparation for Messiah to come. Was it a sign? Never before done?

But, the scriptures that use the word remission after the resurrection state it’s repentance and His blood that gives remission or freedom from our sin.

There is one in the KJV that hints at water baptism and remission.

Act 2:38 Then G1161  Peter G4074  said G5346  unto G4314  them, G846  Repent, G3340  and G2532  be baptized G907  every one G1538  of you G5216  in G1909  the G3588  name G3686  of Jesus G2424  Christ G5547  for G1519  the remission G859  of sins, G266  and G2532  ye shall receive G2983  the G3588  gift G1431  of the G3588  Holy G40  Ghost. G4151 

Here it is His name. This would not be preparation for Messiah but for Holy Spirit.

So it’s repentance after the gospel, baptism preparation, and receiving Holy Spirit.

Remission meaning freedom is blood sacrifice of atonement, would it not?

Thanks for your question. I never saw this before. 😉
The term “for” used in both acts 28 and in reference to John, Can be translated two ways

For - in order to recieve
For - Based on the fact you already received

Considering John demanded saducees and pharisees show fruits which showed they had repented, which is required to recieve remission of sin, BEFORE he would even baptise them.

I think we should be confident the second interpretation would fit. Not only in John the baptists case, but in acts also.
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
In shorter form your answer = "No." :)

However, those who like to subvert the scriptures could post almost any verse they wanted to, claiming it answers the question...then claim they used the word to answer.

You'd said you'd never heard a question that couldn't be answered by use of scripture alone. Now you have been presented with one. If you wanted to, you could receive this truth, and go on to learn that there are MANY questions that aren't answerable by scripture alone. The answer to these questions is in God and in truth, neither of which are fully contained in the bible.

And no, this isn't an attempt to start a debate. It's just a truth presented for those with ears to hear. I pray you will be one of them.

Love in Jesus,
Kelby
This is typical.

You claim that people can prophesy or teach things not found in scripture, Something that God wants us to know Which he did not put in scripture.

Then use an example of something God already said he we did not need to know to begin with.

This is called selective reasoning, You only convince yourself. And maybe those like minded. But if you want to use this to convince others who are on the bubble. it will nto work. Because it is a useless argument.

Now if you want to show me something that God did not already tell us we do not need to know then I will listen.
 

stonesoffire

Poetic Member
Nov 24, 2013
10,665
1,829
113
Very dangerous heresy. Place your truth above Gods truth as revealed in the word of God. Downright frightening. You have truth that God did not include in His word makes you on a higher level than God?

John 16:13 reveals that God operates through His word by the Holy Spirit.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
Uh, not what he said....

1Jn 2:27 But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him.
 

stonesoffire

Poetic Member
Nov 24, 2013
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The term “for” used in both acts 28 and in reference to John, Can be translated two ways

For - in order to recieve
For - Based on the fact you already received


Considering John demanded saducees and pharisees show fruits which showed they had repented, which is required to recieve remission of sin, BEFORE he would even baptise them.

I think we should be confident the second interpretation would fit. Not only in John the baptists case, but in acts also.
Are you using a dictionary rather than a concordance EG?
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
Johns baptism was different than OT baptism, I think this is what jesus was referring too. John explained why he came baptizing, Not so people could receive remission of sin, But because God was going to use it to point to Christ (the one whome you baptise and immediately after comming out of the water, he is anointed with the spirit. This is he who baptizes with the HS.
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
Are you using a dictionary rather than a concordance EG?
I am using all possible translations of the word for. Not only in the english language, but in any language

Example

I go to the store FOR milk (in order to get milk)

I go to the doctor FOR I am sick (because I am sick)
 

notuptome

Senior Member
May 17, 2013
15,050
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Uh, not what he said....

1Jn 2:27 But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him.
Not what the scripture is saying. Not at all saying what you want it to say. The Holy Spirit only teaches what He has heard from the Father. Just like Jesus came to do the will of the Father the Holy Spirit teaches what God the Father has revealed in His word. There is no extra biblical revelation and John made that clear in his closing of the book of Revelation.

Neo evangelicalism produces weak discipleship.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 

stonesoffire

Poetic Member
Nov 24, 2013
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There are many scriptures that show Holy Spirit teaches things that only the spiritual person can receive. You posted a few yourself recently. Did you not believe what you posted? Roger?
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
There are many scriptures that show Holy Spirit teaches things that only the spiritual person can receive. You posted a few yourself recently. Did you not believe what you posted? Roger?
In order to be a spiritual person. Do no you have to be made alive?
 

stonesoffire

Poetic Member
Nov 24, 2013
10,665
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I am using all possible translations of the word for. Not only in the english language, but in any language

Example

I go to the store FOR milk (in order to get milk)

I go to the doctor FOR I am sick (because I am sick)
That doesn’t fit the word in the scripture though, for (lol) if it does? Then you must agree with what you are disagreeing. 😉
 

stonesoffire

Poetic Member
Nov 24, 2013
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Johns baptism was different than OT baptism, I think this is what jesus was referring too. John explained why he came baptizing, Not so people could receive remission of sin, But because God was going to use it to point to Christ (the one whome you baptise and immediately after comming out of the water, he is anointed with the spirit. This is he who baptizes with the HS.
But, before the Cross EG. The sacrifice wasn’t yet and the people were expecting a ruler to deliver them from Rome. Not from sin.

Not sure of my point but am sticking with it. Too many thoughts swirling now. Jk.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
That doesn’t fit the word in the scripture though, for (lol) if it does? Then you must agree with what you are disagreeing. 😉
What? Who says it does not fit?

John said he teaches a baptism of repentance for remmission of sin.

Does he mean for (in order to recieve) or for (because you have received)

What does the rest of scripture teach? If one looks, Option one is easily and readily refuted.
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
But, before the Cross EG. The sacrifice wasn’t yet and the people were expecting a ruler to deliver them from Rome. Not from sin.

Not sure of my point but am sticking with it. Too many thoughts swirling now. Jk.
No one every had one sin forgiven or remitted based on any sacrifice of any animal. Or any man circumcising them, or any man immersing them in water

ALL sins are remitted by the payment of bllook shed on the cross (as the scripture says, without the shedding of blood. There can be no remission)
 

notuptome

Senior Member
May 17, 2013
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There are many scriptures that show Holy Spirit teaches things that only the spiritual person can receive. You posted a few yourself recently. Did you not believe what you posted? Roger?
The Holy Spirit teaches believers things from the word of God. God does not operate outside of His word. Gods word is complete and requires no additions or editing by man.

Men fancy being able to amend Gods word to make it more like them. Man is changeable but God is not.

Why do you want to change God?

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 

stonesoffire

Poetic Member
Nov 24, 2013
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I have more questions right now EG than answers, This discussion has given me many issues to search out. For one thing, Jesus poured out His blood on the mercy seat before Father after He appeared to Mary. Did His blood poured out on the very ground of Israel have an action too?

I think I’m going to take some time to study because these are things I’ve never thought of before. Am sure this is His way of wanting to show me something I’ve not seen before.

But, plainly..no baptism in water doesn’t give remission of Sin. Again freedom is the definition so it’s atonement. Blood sacrifice of the Cross.