Rev 11, The (Two Witnesses) Will Rule The Tribulation By Plagues And God's Judgement

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Blain

The Word Weaver
Aug 28, 2012
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Your post has been answered, to claim otherwise means pinocchio's nose is gonna grow again.
And again no it wasn't check his question again, I have brain damage so if I can understand whether or not his question was answered surely you can.
 
Jan 4, 2020
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washburn Tn
Bud I disagree that day is a literal year

I also disagree that France is symbolic of the Beast

Scripture teaches that (The Beast) will be a future literal human man, and he will be killed, and his body will be thrown into the eternal flame.

Daniel 7:11KJV
11 I beheld then because of the voice of the great words which the horn spake: I beheld even till the beast was slain, and his body destroyed, and given to the burning flame.
YOU HAFT TO GO BACK IN HISTORY AND SEE THE BIBLE fulfilled to see and understand what the BIBLE IS SAYING,
The beast here is the papacy HE started his reign in 538ad and ruled till 1798ad' till France put him in prison, and he died in there, THIS is the deadly wound that he got, this is the 1260 years in the BIBLE, that the BIBLE said he would rule IN Daniel 7:25, A time is 1 year, And times is 2 years and a haft time is a haft year, just like revelation says also, The BIBLE agrees all the way through it, You haft to base your beliefs that let all the BIBLE line up together, they all say the same thing, And if they don't then our beliefs are wrong, FOR THE BIBLE IS ALWAYS RIGHT, SINCERELY William
 

TheDivineWatermark

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Aug 3, 2018
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Already answered. Anyone who believes the 2 lampstands standing before the Father are for the purpose of destroying men doesn't know God very well, if at all.
Let's allow the reader to note that Rev11:4 actually reads "standing before the Lord of the earth" (and let the reader note the places elsewhere in Scripture where this phrasing is used, rather than the other commonly used phrase "Lord of heaven and earth"... and ask themselves "why" does Rev11:4 use the former, rather than the latter).


________

the rest of the verses say,
"5And if anyone should desire to harm them, fire goes out of their mouth and devours their enemies. And if anyone should desire to harm them, thus it is necessary for him to be killed. 6These have the power to shut the sky, so that no rain shall fall in the days of their prophecy; and they have power over the waters, to turn them into blood, and to strike the earth with every plague, as often as they might desire."
[and]
" 10And those dwelling on the earth rejoice over them and make merry, and will send gifts to one another, because these two prophets have tormented those dwelling upon the earth."

[not "destroyed"]
 

TheDivineWatermark

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YOU HAFT TO GO BACK IN HISTORY AND SEE THE BIBLE fulfilled to see and understand what the BIBLE IS SAYING,
The beast here is the papacy HE started his reign in 538ad and ruled till 1798ad' till France put him in prison, and he died in there,
THIS is the deadly wound that he got, this is the 1260 years in the BIBLE, that the BIBLE said he would rule IN Daniel 7:25, A time is 1 year, And times is 2 years and a haft time is a haft year, just like revelation says also,
The BIBLE agrees all the way through it, You haft to base your beliefs that let all the BIBLE line up together, they all say the same thing, And if they don't then our beliefs are wrong, FOR THE BIBLE IS ALWAYS RIGHT, SINCERELY William
[re: the bold ^ ] Why then are you taking "time and times and the dividing of time" (Dan7:25) which you are acknowledging means "1 year... 2 years... and half a year" [=3.5 yrs] to mean something other than that, namely [your idea] of 1260 years (rather than 1260 days totaling 3.5 years)?

And we see in Daniel 12:6-7 the same time-frame being referenced [tho more pointedly-specific there], which verse 13 goes on to tell what will happen at the END of the days (the "days" referred to in that context), which is that Daniel will (after having died, will eventually) "STAND in thy LOT at the END of the DAYS" (the very "days" already referenced in the text; i.e. be resurrected to stand again on the earth). Are you suggesting this happened in 1798ad?? (re: Daniel)
 

Truth7t7

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May 19, 2020
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Blain

The Word Weaver
Aug 28, 2012
19,212
2,547
113
YOU HAFT TO GO BACK IN HISTORY AND SEE THE BIBLE fulfilled to see and understand what the BIBLE IS SAYING,
The beast here is the papacy HE started his reign in 538ad and ruled till 1798ad' till France put him in prison, and he died in there, THIS is the deadly wound that he got, this is the 1260 years in the BIBLE, that the BIBLE said he would rule IN Daniel 7:25, A time is 1 year, And times is 2 years and a haft time is a haft year, just like revelation says also, The BIBLE agrees all the way through it, You haft to base your beliefs that let all the BIBLE line up together, they all say the same thing, And if they don't then our beliefs are wrong, FOR THE BIBLE IS ALWAYS RIGHT, SINCERELY William
Well bible prophecy often foreshadows itself it is a common pattern throughout the bible so this could be a type of foreshadowing assuming that this is historically accurate but I am confused how you got that many years from the description you spoke of times as years.
 

Blain

The Word Weaver
Aug 28, 2012
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Perhaps you shoul inform Strongs they are wrong :)


Strong’s Definitions
ἀποστασία apostasía, ap-os-tas-ee'-ah; feminine of the same as G647; defection from truth (properly, the state) ("apostasy"):—falling away, forsake.
I am sure you are tired of dealing with me by now but I wanted to explain to you why he said what he did. The scriptures say there must first be a falling away note it says a before saying falling away this is what makes it a noun not a verb it is describing a falling away vs saying there is a falling away or was a falling away both of these describe an action either taking place as is or took place before
 
Jan 4, 2020
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washburn Tn
[re: the bold ^ ] Why then are you taking "time and times and the dividing of time" (Dan7:25) which you are acknowledging means "1 year... 2 years... and half a year" [=3.5 yrs] to mean something other than that, namely [your idea] of 1260 years (rather than 1260 days totaling 3.5 years)?

And we see in Daniel 12:6-7 the same time-frame being referenced [tho more pointedly-specific there], which verse 13 goes on to tell what will happen at the END of the days (the "days" referred to in that context), which is that Daniel will (after having died, will eventually) "STAND in thy LOT at the END of the DAYS" (the very "days" already referenced in the text; i.e. be resurrected to stand again on the earth). Are you suggesting this happened in 1798ad??
Because things in prophecy are not literal, And we haft to study the BIBLE to see WHAT they MEAN, JUST like A beast is A Kingdom in prophecy, And Daniel tells us that it is, So we Haft to study the BIBLE to see the spiritual meaning OF things in PROPHECY, JUST LIKE A WOMAN IS A CHURCH, AND THEIR IS PLANTY TO SHOW US THIS IN THE BIBLE,
GOD BLESS AS GOD SEES GOOD FOR YOU ALL,
SINCERELY William
 

TheDivineWatermark

Well-known member
Aug 3, 2018
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Perhaps you shoul inform Strongs they are wrong:)


Strong’s Definitions
ἀποστασία apostasía, ap-os-tas-ee'-ah; feminine of the same as G647; defection from truth (properly, the state) ("apostasy"):—falling away, forsake.
All I have to say to that is,

--"forsake" is a VERB

--v.3's "he apostasia" (THE 'apostasia') is a NOUN (and with the definite article, 'THE,' as verse 3 has it in the Greek [not showing in the kjv], a definite one at that! ;) )


_______

"Apostasia" - "later form for APOSTASIS" [apo stasis ] - "a standing away from... or DEPARATURE or REMOVAL"...

i.e. the NOUN-event v.1 JUST SPOKE OF! ;)

["our episynagoges [noun] UNTO HIM"]
 

Truth7t7

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May 19, 2020
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All I have to say to that is,

--"forsake" is a VERB

--v.3's "he apostasia" (THE 'apostasia') is a NOUN (and with the definite article, 'THE,' as verse 3 has it in the Greek [not showing in the kjv], a definite one at that! ;) )


_______

"Apostasia" - "later form for APOSTASIS" [apo stasis ] - "a standing away from... or DEPARATURE or REMOVAL"...

i.e. the NOUN-event v.1 JUST SPOKE OF! ;)
All I have to say is no pre-trib rapture is found in the greek word (Apostasia) in 2 Thess 2;3
 

Blain

The Word Weaver
Aug 28, 2012
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Because things in prophecy are not literal, And we haft to study the BIBLE to see WHAT they MEAN, JUST like A beast is A Kingdom in prophecy, And Daniel tells us that it is, So we Haft to study the BIBLE to see the spiritual meaning OF things in PROPHECY, JUST LIKE A WOMAN IS A CHURCH, AND THEIR IS PLANTY TO SHOW US THIS IN THE BIBLE,
GOD BLESS AS GOD SEES GOOD FOR YOU ALL,
SINCERELY William
Well it depends really prophecy can be literal at times and symbolic in others, nearly 69% of the bible is actually prophecy and that includes the old testament. For instance of a literal sense of prophecy there are at least as many as I have counted 55 references to Jesus in the old testament speaking of his birth his ministry and the fulfillment of the covenant and promise we recieveed when Jesus died on the cross all of them depict these happens which were literal prophecies.
Symbolic ones such as in Daniel Issiah Ezekial revelations and also a lot of the new testament are more difficult to discern
 
Jan 4, 2020
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washburn Tn
Well bible prophecy often foreshadows itself it is a common pattern throughout the bible so this could be a type of foreshadowing assuming that this is historically accurate but I am confused how you got that many years from the description you spoke of times as years.
PEOPLE DO NOT LIKE GOD TELLING THEM HOW THEY SHOULD LIVE AND HOW THEY SHOULD EAT, AND THE THINGS THAT GOD TELLS THEM TO DO,
THIS is the persecution that they don't want to hear. AND this is one reason why France done away with the BIBLE 3 & a haft years,
 
Jan 4, 2020
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washburn Tn
Well it depends really prophecy can be literal at times and symbolic in others, nearly 69% of the bible is actually prophecy and that includes the old testament. For instance of a literal sense of prophecy there are at least as many as I have counted 55 references to Jesus in the old testament speaking of his birth his ministry and the fulfillment of the covenant and promise we recieveed when Jesus died on the cross all of them depict these happens which were literal prophecies.
Symbolic ones such as in Daniel Issiah Ezekial revelations and also a lot of the new testament are more difficult to discern
Who are you to say what is literal and how much is literal, I think you are very wrong, GOD BLESS AS GOD SEES GOOD
 

TheDivineWatermark

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Aug 3, 2018
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All I have to say is no pre-trib rapture is found in the greek word (Apostasia) in 2 Thess 2;3
The word means "[THE] DEPARTURE"... but the CONTEXT determines WHAT KIND of "departure" is meant.


"apostasia - later form for apostasis" [from apo G575 'from'/'away from' ...and *stasis/stasin G4714 - 'a STANDING [NOUN]'] - "a standing [NOUN] away from [from a previous standing]"...

...so, what do you believe the word "G4714 - stasis/stasin [noun]" means?

https://biblehub.com/greek/4714.htm [see ALSO the LISTING of its 9 occurrences, at right side, especially the 9th--WHAT DOES THIS WORD MEAN??]
 

Blain

The Word Weaver
Aug 28, 2012
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Who are you to say what is literal and how much is literal, I think you are very wrong, GOD BLESS AS GOD SEES GOOD
That was a bit uncalled for don't you think? All I did was explain to you about the literal and symbolic understanding of prophecy.
I am not intending to offend but as someone who is fascinated by this particular subject I have exhuastively studied it the patterns in it the weaving of it throughout the entire bible and you can take it or leave
 

TheDivineWatermark

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Because things in prophecy are not literal, And we haft to study the BIBLE to see WHAT they MEAN, JUST like A beast is A Kingdom in prophecy, And Daniel tells us that it is, So we Haft to study the BIBLE to see the spiritual meaning OF things in PROPHECY, JUST LIKE A WOMAN IS A CHURCH, AND THEIR IS PLANTY TO SHOW US THIS IN THE BIBLE,
GOD BLESS AS GOD SEES GOOD FOR YOU ALL,
SINCERELY William
The thing about it is, is that verses 1-4 are speaking about "*Israel" [the nation] (and NOT a "physical/bodily resurrection [from the DEAD]"), and what THEY go on to DO (during the specific time-period being referenced, esp. vv.2-4,10)... so are you suggesting that took place between the years you named?


[ *Israel coming up out of the "graveyard of nations" WHERE SCATTERED ('sown... unto the earth')..., parallel with a number of other passages, like Ezek37:12-14,20-23, Rom11:15, Isa26:16-21, Hos5:14-6:3, etc, etc]
 

Truth7t7

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The word means "[THE] DEPARTURE"... but the CONTEXT determines WHAT KIND of "departure" is meant.


"apostasia - later form for apostasis" [from apo G575 'from'/'away from' ...and *stasis/stasin G4714 - 'a STANDING [NOUN]'] - "a standing [NOUN] away from [from a previous standing]"...

...so, what do you believe the word "G4714 - stasis/stasin [noun]" means?

https://biblehub.com/greek/4714.htm [see ALSO the LISTING of its 9 occurrences, at right side, especially the 9th--WHAT DOES THIS WORD MEAN??]
Strong’s Definitions
ἀποστασία apostasía, ap-os-tas-ee'-ah; feminine of the same as G647; defection from truth (properly, the state) ("apostasy"):—falling away, forsake.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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Aug 3, 2018
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Strong’s Definitions
ἀποστασία apostasía, ap-os-tas-ee'-ah; feminine of the same as G647; defection from truth (properly, the state) ("apostasy"):—falling away, forsake.
And I (in Post #160) already gave the Strong's of the related word you had supplied :

Truth7t7 said:
Root Word (Etymology)
Feminine of the same as ἀποστάσιον (G647)
[Post #160]
"Strong's [under G647 ^ - apostasion ]:
ἀποστάσιον apostásion, ap-os-tas'-ee-on; neuter of a (presumed) adjective from a derivative of G868; properly, something separative [...]"

https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?strongs=G647&t=KJV [scroll down to see Strong's]