No, because if that is true, then 1 John 3:5
And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.
if your theory is true, 1 John 3:5 is by definition wrong.
Christ was sinless, not a single sin found in Him. He became sin on the Cross at which point in time His perfect life was used as payment for our imperfect lives. (Hebrews 9:22)
This is also why we used Lambs for sacrifice as it was an animal that was sinless and perfect and yet was needed to show an example of what the payment of sin is.
Also note, when they chose the lamb it had to look perfect as well, this is another shadowing showing that Christ was perfect not only in His generations, but in the flesh.