The statement "The days of signs, wonders, and miracles are over." is a issue of prima facie. Why would he "need" to prove its validity from the Bible or any other reference source?
Some of us have seen evidence of supernaturally healing, for example, and many other supernatural gifts. Your not having seen it is 'prima facie' evidence of nothing. An analogy Keener used is if a policeman asks people standing around an accident about an accident and someone says, "No accident happened. I did not see it." he would likely ignore that person and ask someone who saw the accident.
"This is a strange false dichotomy, since having faith is intertwined with miracles."
This is not a strange or false dichotomy. Jesus expected faith without miracles in John 20:24-29. Are miracles used to produce faith...of course but faith without miracles is labeled as blessed.
Nor did Christ say anyone was particularly blessed for not seeing miracles or for not seeing His resurrection. The blessing is for believing without seeing Christ resurrected. If you already believe, and you see God do miracles, that takes nothing from you. The passage is not a polemic for nonsupernatural Christianity. The apostles did not have a negative attitude toward the supernatural in Acts. They prayed for God to stretch out His hand to heal and to do signs and wonders for the sake of His Servant Jesus.
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