Are the Scriptures Infallible, Inerrant, or Both?

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Are the Scriptures Infallible, Inerrant, or Both?

  • Infallible

    Votes: 0 0.0%
  • Inerrant

    Votes: 2 25.0%
  • Both

    Votes: 6 75.0%

  • Total voters
    8
S

SantoSubito

Guest
#1
It's all in the title.
 
A

AnandaHya

Guest
#2
sorry but I have issues with your signature.

You must follow the bishop as Jesus Christ follows the Father, and the priesthood as you would the Apostles. Reverence the deacons as you would the command of God. Let no one do anything of concern to the Church without the bishop. Wherever the bishop appears, let the people be there, just as wherever Jesus Christ is, there is the Catholic Church."- St. Ignatius of Antioch, Letter to the Smyrnaeans, 8:1-2, AD 107

I follow JESUS CHRIST my eternal High priest and Bishop and Teacher. He did not teach me to worship any man and follow them as Jesus does God. that is idolatry. I would not follow "the bishop", why should I reverence the deacons as commands from my God? why not follow the commands of my God instead? who are "the people" and why do they follow a bishop instead of Jesus Christ our Lord and Savior?

Hebrews 4:14-16
New King James Version (NKJV)
Our Compassionate High Priest

14 Seeing then that we have a great High Priest who has passed through the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold fast our confession. 15 For we do not have a High Priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but was in all points tempted as we are, yet without sin. 16 Let us therefore come boldly to the throne of grace, that we may obtain mercy and find grace to help in time of need.


Jesus is the Word of God.
 
S

SantoSubito

Guest
#3
sorry but I have issues with your signature.

You must follow the bishop as Jesus Christ follows the Father, and the priesthood as you would the Apostles. Reverence the deacons as you would the command of God. Let no one do anything of concern to the Church without the bishop. Wherever the bishop appears, let the people be there, just as wherever Jesus Christ is, there is the Catholic Church."- St. Ignatius of Antioch, Letter to the Smyrnaeans, 8:1-2, AD 107

I follow JESUS CHRIST my eternal High priest and Bishop and Teacher. He did not teach me to worship any man and follow them as Jesus does God. that is idolatry. I would not follow "the bishop", why should I reverence the deacons as commands from my God? why not follow the commands of my God instead? who are "the people" and why do they follow a bishop instead of Jesus Christ our Lord and Savior?

Hebrews 4:14-16
New King James Version (NKJV)
Our Compassionate High Priest

14 Seeing then that we have a great High Priest who has passed through the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold fast our confession. 15 For we do not have a High Priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but was in all points tempted as we are, yet without sin. 16 Let us therefore come boldly to the throne of grace, that we may obtain mercy and find grace to help in time of need.


Jesus is the Word of God.
Take it up with Saint Ignatius. He learned from Saint John the Apostle so if you ever meet him you might have your hands full.
 
A

AnandaHya

Guest
#4
Take it up with Saint Ignatius. He learned from Saint John the Apostle so if you ever meet him you might have your hands full.
lol let me put it in my monthly planner then?
 
S

SantoSubito

Guest
#5
lol let me put it in my monthly planner then?
Ignatius says half past after you die is good, can you make it then? I asked him for you since you don't believe in prayer to the Saints and all:D
 
A

AnandaHya

Guest
#6
Ignatius says half past after you die is good, can you make it then? I asked him for you since you don't believe in prayer to the Saints and all:D
yeah people tell me that beings claiming to be Saints and praying to them is akin to praying to angels and worshiping the Heavenly Host. I get these Bible verse:

Deuteronomy 17:3
who has gone and served other gods and worshiped them, either the sun or moon or any of the host of heaven, which I have not commanded,

Acts 7:42
Then God turned and gave them up to worship the host of heaven, as it is written in the book of the Prophets: ‘ Did you offer Me slaughtered animals and sacrifices during forty years in the wilderness,O house of Israel?

Colossians 2:18
Let no one cheat you of your reward, taking delight in false humility and worship of angels, intruding into those things which he has not seen, vainly puffed up by his fleshly mind,

Ephesians 6:12
For we do not wrestle against flesh and blood, but against principalities, against powers, against the rulers of the darkness of this age, against spiritual hosts of wickedness in the heavenly places.


What do you make of it?
 
S

SantoSubito

Guest
#7
yeah people tell me that beings claiming to be Saints and praying to them is akin to praying to angels and worshiping the Heavenly Host. I get these Bible verse:
Lets see what we've got here.

Deuteronomy 17:3
who has gone and served other gods and worshiped them, either the sun or moon or any of the host of heaven, which I have not commanded,
Not really applicable. We don't see the Saints as gods, to Catholics or Orthodox Christians prayer (in the old sense of "to ask")/= worship

Acts 7:42
Then God turned and gave them up to worship the host of heaven, as it is written in the book of the Prophets: ‘ Did you offer Me slaughtered animals and sacrifices during forty years in the wilderness,O house of Israel?
Same as above
Colossians 2:18
Let no one cheat you of your reward, taking delight in false humility and worship of angels, intruding into those things which he has not seen, vainly puffed up by his fleshly mind,
Same as above again
Ephesians 6:12
For we do not wrestle against flesh and blood, but against principalities, against powers, against the rulers of the darkness of this age, against spiritual hosts of wickedness in the heavenly places.
Not really related to prayer (It's better called the intercession) of the Saints.
 
A

AnandaHya

Guest
#8
Not really related to prayer (It's better called the intercession) of the Saints.
but why pray to the saints and not just pray to Jesus our One mediator?

1 Timothy 2:5-6
New King James Version (NKJV)
5 For there is one God and one Mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus, 6 who gave Himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time,
 
S

systemdown101

Guest
#9
Okay, getting back to the thread topic ... could someone explain to me what the difference is between infallible and inerrant?
 
S

SantoSubito

Guest
#10
Okay, getting back to the thread topic ... could someone explain to me what the difference is between infallible and inerrant?
Inerrant means to be without error. Infallible means to "teach without error".
 
S

SantoSubito

Guest
#11
but why pray to the saints and not just pray to Jesus our One mediator?

1 Timothy 2:5-6
New King James Version (NKJV)
5 For there is one God and one Mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus, 6 who gave Himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time,
As it says in James 5:16 16 Confess your trespasses[a] to one another, and pray for one another, that you may be healed. The effective, fervent prayer of a righteous man avails much.

Those in heaven have already been made perfect, and now they are perfectly righteous, so their prayers are the most powerful of all. Asking a Saint to pray for us is no different than asking our friend to pray for us, and a Saint is no more a mediator than our friend is. The Saints intercede for us, they do not mediate for us, the two words are distinct and that distinction is important.
 
S

systemdown101

Guest
#12
Inerrant means to be without error. Infallible means to "teach without error".
I think I need more of an explanation because I'm not seeing the difference. So the question is, are the Scriptures without error, or are the Scriptures taught without error ...? The difference is escaping me.

Then again, I'm old and my brain is fossilized.
 
S

SantoSubito

Guest
#13
I think I need more of an explanation because I'm not seeing the difference. So the question is, are the Scriptures without error, or are the Scriptures taught without error ...? The difference is escaping me.

Then again, I'm old and my brain is fossilized.
Inerrant = the scriptures are without error

Infallible = the scriptures can teach without error

Basically for infallible, you have to ask yourself "can the scriptures teach without error? Or are they subject to our interpretations?"
 
A

Abiding

Guest
#14
Take it up with Saint Ignatius. He learned from Saint John the Apostle so if you ever meet him you might have your hands full.
Wonder which John the Apostle: 1J2:26-28 These things have I written unto you concerning them that seduce you. But the anointing which ye have recieved of Him abidith in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in Him. And now little children, abide in Him; that, when He shall appear, we may have confidence, and not be ashamed before Him at His coming.

That Apostle John?
 
A

AnandaHya

Guest
#15
1. the scriptures are without error (Inerrant)

2. the Holy Spirit teaches without error (infallible)

3. the human mind often does not record the teachings without errors or filters the message through preconceived lens of our past experiences.
 
Jul 3, 2011
2,417
5
0
#16
in·fal·li·ble

   [in-fal-uh-buh
l]
Show IPA
–adjective 1. absolutely trustworthy or sure



Scripture is not only inerrant, but also infallible
 
S

systemdown101

Guest
#17
Inerrant = the scriptures are without error

Infallible = the scriptures can teach without error

Basically for infallible, you have to ask yourself "can the scriptures teach without error? Or are they subject to our interpretations?"
Ah, NOW I understand!

1. the scriptures are without error (Inerrant)

2. the Holy Spirit teaches without error (infallible)

3. the human mind often does not record the teachings without errors or filters the message through preconceived lens of our past experiences.
I agree with this. The Scriptures are themselves inerrant, MUST be inerrant, but without the Holy Spirit as a guide OR a pastor/teacher who are themselves guided by The Spirit, they can be taught in error. In fact, I'd say a lot of (bad) history has been made because someone ... many someones ... taught scripture in a way that twisted it towards their own ends, if I understand the term infallible correctly. Which ... I probably don't.
 
Z

zackabba

Guest
#18
Ah, NOW I understand!



I agree with this. The Scriptures are themselves inerrant, MUST be inerrant, but without the Holy Spirit as a guide OR a pastor/teacher who are themselves guided by The Spirit, they can be taught in error. In fact, I'd say a lot of (bad) history has been made because someone ... many someones ... taught scripture in a way that twisted it towards their own ends, if I understand the term infallible correctly. Which ... I probably don't.
Well, you just perfectly answered your own question :D

Yes, many have twisted them to their own destruction. Why? They were void of the Spirit.

Always watch out for false teachers. And watch out for false teachers who point out false teachers.



You have to deny the inspiration of the Scriptures in order to support these things:

*Jesus is not God
*The Resurrection is a Myth
*There are many gods
*Jesus is not the only way to God


And many, many more (I'm sure you can fill in the blank with many more things than I)


Grace and Love
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#19
The scripture in their original autographs (as written by the men who wrote them.) are infalible. Unfortunately, the copies, and translations (Ie English translation or text) are falible. because they were written by men and not inspired by God. However, even the inconsistencies and mistranslations are not enough to cause one to misinterpret the infallible text. As one who reads it correctly can see the erros and overcome them.

The scripture is inerrant. As Paul tells timothy. Scripture is profitable (fully able to do these things) for doctrine, (learning Gods truth) reproof (censoring or rebuking a false idea or premise), correction (correcting our own misconceptions and mistranslation and our own false thinking, including sin) and instruction in righteousness (teach us how God wants us to live in all areas) that the man of God may be complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work. (that anything a man needs to know to be equipped to do the work of God is contained in scripture. and everything a man needs to know to be "complete" in God is fully and completely contained in scripture (thus we do not need anything outside of scripture. Scripture is able to do it all)

Now this does not mean man will infallibly interpret scripture. Men look at scripture with preconceived notions or ideas of what it says or should say and do not become learned. will easily misinterpret scripture. But this does not in any means say that someone can not look at scripture with an open heart and have it do everything Paul tell sis it can and WILL do.. (and think, scripture was not even complete when Paul made this comment to timothy. Yet he tells timothy he had enough scripture as a child to be saved from eternal wrath and spend eternity in heaven.
 
W

Warrior44

Guest
#20
The scripture in their original autographs (as written by the men who wrote them.) are infalible. Unfortunately, the copies, and translations (Ie English translation or text) are falible. because they were written by men and not inspired by God. However, even the inconsistencies and mistranslations are not enough to cause one to misinterpret the infallible text. As one who reads it correctly can see the erros and overcome them.

The scripture is inerrant. As Paul tells timothy. Scripture is profitable (fully able to do these things) for doctrine, (learning Gods truth) reproof (censoring or rebuking a false idea or premise), correction (correcting our own misconceptions and mistranslation and our own false thinking, including sin) and instruction in righteousness (teach us how God wants us to live in all areas) that the man of God may be complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work. (that anything a man needs to know to be equipped to do the work of God is contained in scripture. and everything a man needs to know to be "complete" in God is fully and completely contained in scripture (thus we do not need anything outside of scripture. Scripture is able to do it all)

Now this does not mean man will infallibly interpret scripture. Men look at scripture with preconceived notions or ideas of what it says or should say and do not become learned. will easily misinterpret scripture. But this does not in any means say that someone can not look at scripture with an open heart and have it do everything Paul tell sis it can and WILL do.. (and think, scripture was not even complete when Paul made this comment to timothy. Yet he tells timothy he had enough scripture as a child to be saved from eternal wrath and spend eternity in heaven.
I think because the Scripture was not yet complete at the time of the writings and because many New Testament writers were not aware of the guidance of the Holy Spirit while they were writing, St. Paul may have been referring to the Old Testament.
Also, it is important to note that the Scriptures WERE able to be misinterpreted in the time of Jesus the most famous of which is the temping of the Lord by Satan (matthew 4:5-6).