To be honest when I read it I see Paul writing to THEM, telling THEM that "when THEY" see, for "THEM" not to be deceived. I do not see it saying ANYTHING at all about "passing this down for those who will need it generations later".
Okay, so for example, in an earlier post I'd written about 2Th2:1-2 (not all direct quotes, other than where I placed quotation marks below),
"1 we beseech you...
BY / IN THE INTERESTS OF THE TRUTH CONCERNING"
our Rapture [IN THE AIR],
2 not to be persuaded [
deceived] by anyone trying to convince you
that "the day of the Lord IS PRESENT / IS ALREADY HERE [PERFECT indicative]"
... my questions to you (about this) would be:
--in verse 1,
a) what do you believe the phrase "and
our episynagoges unto Him" (the entire Subject of v.1) is referring to... Do you believe (as I do, and many others) that "
our" speaks of "the Church WHICH IS HIS BODY" corporately (that is, in its entirety--including "us" today)?,
b) and that "
episynagoges UNTO HIM [/Jesus]" speaks of the same "caught up [G726]" matter [/concept] that the 1Th4:17 context [and 3:13 "before [G1715] the God and Father of us"-same context] speaks about?
c) Or do you believe this (verse 1) is referring to something other than these?
--secondly,
in verse 2, I do not believe Paul is referring to something they should "see" (and not be deceived by), but that he was exhorting them to not be "deceived" by something (
a particular false claim) either being then circulated, or that could potentially circulate, which would have this
adverse effect on their state of mind / thoughts ("troubled" etc, as I put in my earlier post)... because Paul is establishing [rather, reiterating to their minds] how the ONE Subject (
v.1)
relates to the OTHER Subject (the "false claim's content"
per v.2).
My questions here
re: v.2 are,
a) do you believe: "the day of the Lord" is an earthly-located time-period... that will ARRIVE [whenever that might be] to unfold upon the earth?;
b) and that the 'false claim" (v.2) regarding it, was "THAT... [it] IS ALREADY HERE / IS PRESENT [
perfect indicative]" (rather than the common idea that "the false claim" [v.2] was that it was "
near" / soon to take place)?;
c) and that Paul had already in his first letter acknowledged WHEN and HOW it will ARRIVE ("exactly like [
hosper]" the INITIAL "birth PANG [singular]"
OF the very ones of those that Jesus had already talked about in Matt24:4-8 / Mk13:5-8 / Lk21:8-11)?;
d) and that these "beginning of birth pangs [pl]" are EQUIVALENT to the SEALS (Rev6)?;
e) and that Rev1:1 / 1:19c 4:1 establishes that these SEALS take place within the "IN QUICKNESS [NOUN; 1:1]" time-period that immediately precedes and LEADS UP TO Christ's "RETURN"
to the earth, Rev19 (parallel, "when he will
RETURN FROM the wedding"... i.e. as an ALREADY-WED Bridegroom, not "TO BE wed" at that point; yet the Lk12:36-37,38,40,42-48 passage I took that quote from has saints/faithful-and-wise/BLESSED [and its parallel passage in Matt24:42-51], not being whom He is MARRYING, are present on the earth "when" He will "RETURN" there (that is, to the earth)]
Had more... must run (sorry!)