Please help me to understand

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The "first" saved were Jewish, the eleven disciples when Jesus appeared through a locked door ( and possibly also Jewish women) and said " receive ye the Holy Ghost" John 20:22, and the 120 in Acts 1, none of whom were Greeks. What don't you understand? Read the Bible to get it right, not just so YOU can be right.

What don't I understand is the stuffs you read into the text. Nobody received the Holy Spirit until Acts 2. Lord Jesus explicitly taught that he must depart so the Holy Spirit can come, Jn. 16:7, was he contradicting himself? Or you?

Nevertheless I tell you the truth. It is to your advantage that I go away; for if I do not go away, the Helper will not come to you; but if I depart, I will send Him to you.
 
What don't I understand is the stuffs you read into the text. Nobody received the Holy Spirit until Acts 2. Lord Jesus explicitly taught that he must depart so the Holy Spirit can come, Jn. 16:7, was he contradicting himself? Or you?

Nevertheless I tell you the truth. It is to your advantage that I go away; for if I do not go away, the Helper will not come to you; but if I depart, I will send Him to you.
I could react to the scripture you correctly quoted, but I doubt you know about the baptism of the Holy Spirit. What I will address is your ignoring of the 120 JEWISH (not Greek) believers of Acts 2, referenced in my post. Weren't they first? Just curious, but when Jesus told His disciples to " receive ye the Holy Ghost " in John 16 He did something first. What was it?
 
I could react to the scripture you correctly quoted, but I doubt you know about the baptism of the Holy Spirit. What I will address is your ignoring of the 120 JEWISH (not Greek) believers of Acts 2, referenced in my post. Weren't they first? Just curious, but when Jesus told His disciples to " receive ye the Holy Ghost " in John 16 He did something first. What was it?
First of all, those 120 Jews could be from "every nation under heaven", according to not me, but Act 2:5 - "And there were dwelling in Jerusalem Jews, devout men, from every nation under heaven"; second, "Greek saved first" was applied on a NATIONAL level, not an individual level. The gospel will be rejected by the majority of Jews until all the Gentile nations receive it and Christ returns.

Acts 13:44-48

On the next Sabbath almost the whole city came together to hear the word of God. But when the Jews saw the multitudes, they were filled with envy; and contradicting and blaspheming, they opposed the things spoken by Paul. Then Paul and Barnabas grew bold and said, “It was necessary that the word of God should be spoken to you first; but since you reject it, and judge yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, behold, we turn to the Gentiles. For so the Lord has commanded us:

‘I have set you as a light to the Gentiles,
That you should be for salvation to the ends of the earth.’ ”

Now when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad and glorified the word of the Lord. And as many as had been appointed to eternal life believed.
 
First of all, those 120 Jews could be from "every nation under heaven", according to not me, but Act 2:5 - "And there were dwelling in Jerusalem Jews, devout men, from every nation under heaven"; second, "Greek saved first" was applied on a NATIONAL level, not an individual level. The gospel will be rejected by the majority of Jews until all the Gentile nations receive it and Christ returns.

Acts 13:44-48

On the next Sabbath almost the whole city came together to hear the word of God. But when the Jews saw the multitudes, they were filled with envy; and contradicting and blaspheming, they opposed the things spoken by Paul. Then Paul and Barnabas grew bold and said, “It was necessary that the word of God should be spoken to you first; but since you reject it, and judge yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, behold, we turn to the Gentiles. For so the Lord has commanded us:

‘I have set you as a light to the Gentiles,
That you should be for salvation to the ends of the earth.’ ”

Now when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad and glorified the word of the Lord. And as many as had been appointed to eternal life believed.
"JEWS, devout mem, from EVERY nation under heaven." were at the feast of Pentecost, AFTER the 120 were in the upper room in Jerusalem. There is no mention of Gentiles being in THAT number, they were Jewish and if, as you believe, no one was saved until Acts 2, then the Holy Spirit fell on the 120 FIRST. The FIRST saved were JEWISH. You can dance around that all you want. IT'S TO THE JEW FIRST., either individually or nationally." For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believes; TO THE JEW FIRST, and ALSO TO THE GREEK." Romans 1:16 P.S. You didn't answer the question of what Jesus did BEFORE he told His disciples to " receive ye the Holy Ghost "
 
"JEWS, devout mem, from EVERY nation under heaven." were at the feast of Pentecost, AFTER the 120 were in the upper room in Jerusalem. There is no mention of Gentiles being in THAT number, they were Jewish and if, as you believe, no one was saved until Acts 2, then the Holy Spirit fell on the 120 FIRST. The FIRST saved were JEWISH. You can dance around that all you want. IT'S TO THE JEW FIRST., either individually or nationally." For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believes; TO THE JEW FIRST, and ALSO TO THE GREEK." Romans 1:16 P.S. You didn't answer the question of what Jesus did BEFORE he told His disciples to " receive ye the Holy Ghost "
Since "Jews" were from every nation under heaven defined by the bible itself, how do you know the 120 in the upper room were all natives and not "from every nation under heaven"? There were plenty Samarians, Canaanites even Romans accepted Jesus as the Messiah, who are you to exclude them all from His disciples?

PS: Before that was the Lord's call to evangelizing: "Peace to you! As the Father has sent Me, I also send you." The Holy Spirit was not received until the day of Pentecost, 50th day since the resurrection -“you have heard from Me; for John truly baptized with water, but you shall be baptized with the Holy Spirit not many days from now.”(Acts 1:4-5)
 
What, do you opine, happens to the food and drink in the glorified, or as you say spiritual bodies, that, according to you, have no need to " tinkle " or defecate?
It would seem to me that, in a world where there is no pollution would be a world where there is no wasted energy. For example, in an energy efficient automobile, there would be no exhaust coming out its tailpipe.
 
Since "Jews" were from every nation under heaven defined by the bible itself, how do you know the 120 in the upper room were all natives and not "from every nation under heaven"? There were plenty Samarians, Canaanites even Romans accepted Jesus as the Messiah, who are you to exclude them all from His disciples?

PS: Before that was the Lord's call to evangelizing: "Peace to you! As the Father has sent Me, I also send you." The Holy Spirit was not received until the day of Pentecost, 50th day since the resurrection -“you have heard from Me; for John truly baptized with water, but you shall be baptized with the Holy Spirit not many days from now.”(Acts 1:4-5)
I posted that the 120 in the upper room were Jews who first experienced the baptism of the Holy Spirit BECAUSE IT'S (as the Bible says) TO THE JEW FIRST! What about that don't (or can't you) understand? " To Him give all the prophets witness, that through His name whosoever believeth in Him shall receive remission of sins. While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word. And THEY OF THE CIRCUMCISION (Jews) which (already) believed WERE ASTONISHED, as many as came with Peter, because that ON THE GENTILES ALSO WAS POURED OUT THE GIFT OF THE GHOST. ( How did they know?) For they heard them (Gentiles) speak with tongues, and magnify God. Then answered Peter, Can any man forbid water, that these (Gentiles) should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost AS WELL AS WE(Jews) Acts 10:44-47. (parenthesis mine) If Gentiles were in the upper room as part of the 120, as you opine, why were they of the circumcision "astonished" when the Holy Spirit was poured out on the Gentiles? This proved that only Jews had heretofore received the baptism of the Holy Spirit. I can't continue to go back and forth with you if you don't or refuse to agree with scripture. Have a good night. P.S. You still didn't answer the question.
 
I posted that the 120 in the upper room were Jews who first experienced the baptism of the Holy Spirit BECAUSE IT'S (as the Bible says) TO THE JEW FIRST! What about that don't (or can't you) understand? " To Him give all the prophets witness, that through His name whosoever believeth in Him shall receive remission of sins. While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word. And THEY OF THE CIRCUMCISION (Jews) which (already) believed WERE ASTONISHED, as many as came with Peter, because that ON THE GENTILES ALSO WAS POURED OUT THE GIFT OF THE GHOST. ( How did they know?) For they heard them (Gentiles) speak with tongues, and magnify God. Then answered Peter, Can any man forbid water, that these (Gentiles) should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost AS WELL AS WE(Jews) Acts 10:44-47. (parenthesis mine) If Gentiles were in the upper room as part of the 120, as you opine, why were they of the circumcision "astonished" when the Holy Spirit was poured out on the Gentiles? This proved that only Jews had heretofore received the baptism of the Holy Spirit. I can't continue to go back and forth with you if you don't or refuse to agree with scripture. Have a good night. P.S. You still didn't answer the question.
I have faithfully abided by the Scripture's own definition of "Jews" in this context, it is you who keeps arguing agaisnt it.
 
I have faithfully abided by the Scripture's own definition of "Jews" in this context, it is you who keeps arguing agaisnt it.
You posted that the Greeks were first saved, whether individually or nationally and, by scripture, that is simply not true.
 
I posted that the 120 in the upper room were Jews who first experienced the baptism of the Holy Spirit BECAUSE IT'S (as the Bible says) TO THE JEW FIRST! What about that don't (or can't you) understand? " To Him give all the prophets witness, that through His name whosoever believeth in Him shall receive remission of sins. While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word. And THEY OF THE CIRCUMCISION (Jews) which (already) believed WERE ASTONISHED, as many as came with Peter, because that ON THE GENTILES ALSO WAS POURED OUT THE GIFT OF THE GHOST. ( How did they know?) For they heard them (Gentiles) speak with tongues, and magnify God. Then answered Peter, Can any man forbid water, that these (Gentiles) should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost AS WELL AS WE(Jews) Acts 10:44-47. (parenthesis mine) If Gentiles were in the upper room as part of the 120, as you opine, why were they of the circumcision "astonished" when the Holy Spirit was poured out on the Gentiles? This proved that only Jews had heretofore received the baptism of the Holy Spirit. I can't continue to go back and forth with you if you don't or refuse to agree with scripture. Have a good night. P.S. You still didn't answer the question.

Not sure what the question is, but regarding speaking in tongues (SIT) the original occurrence of SIT at Pentecost (in Acts 2:4-11) and for awhile longer was earthly languages given as a sign that fulfilled Joel 2:28-32 (cf. Isa. 28:11-12 cited in 1Cor.14:21), which reversed Babel and evangelized 3,000 people, thereby ensuring the planting of the first Christian church. However, by the time of its occurrence in the church at Corinth apparently it had morphed into mere pagan-like babbling (cf. Matt. 6:9). Thus, whenever SIT is claimed, it is right to question whether it is genuine or pagan (1Thes. 5:21). Certainly, if someone suddenly is enabled to speak an unlearned earthly language, that can be verified and considered miraculous, but the correct interpretation of babbling is impossible to verify.

Paul neither quashed SIT completely nor commanded it, writing that the gift would cease (1Cor. 13:8-13) as love continued forever but also that he exercised it more than anyone (1Cor. 14:18), thereby causing confusion. This confusion can be resolved by noting that if SIT were important it would be mentioned and even commanded in other epistles, so the absence of affirming SIT in other Pauline epistles speaks volumes, indicating it was a transitional rather than a normative phenomenon. Thus, confusion can continue regarding the occurrence of SIT in private prayer, but there is no Scriptural warrant for viewing it rather than love as the normative sign of Spirit baptism or filling. Not every Christian has the gift of tongues (1Cor. 12:4-11&29-31), but the mark of every Christian is having divine love (John 13:35, Rom. 5:5, 8:9, 1John 4:7-21).
 
Not sure what the question is, but regarding speaking in tongues (SIT) the original occurrence of SIT at Pentecost (in Acts 2:4-11) and for awhile longer was earthly languages given as a sign that fulfilled Joel 2:28-32 (cf. Isa. 28:11-12 cited in 1Cor.14:21), which reversed Babel and evangelized 3,000 people, thereby ensuring the planting of the first Christian church. However, by the time of its occurrence in the church at Corinth apparently it had morphed into mere pagan-like babbling (cf. Matt. 6:9). Thus, whenever SIT is claimed, it is right to question whether it is genuine or pagan (1Thes. 5:21). Certainly, if someone suddenly is enabled to speak an unlearned earthly language, that can be verified and considered miraculous, but the correct interpretation of babbling is impossible to verify.

Paul neither quashed SIT completely nor commanded it, writing that the gift would cease (1Cor. 13:8-13) as love continued forever but also that he exercised it more than anyone (1Cor. 14:18), thereby causing confusion. This confusion can be resolved by noting that if SIT were important it would be mentioned and even commanded in other epistles, so the absence of affirming SIT in other Pauline epistles speaks volumes, indicating it was a transitional rather than a normative phenomenon. Thus, confusion can continue regarding the occurrence of SIT in private prayer, but there is no Scriptural warrant for viewing it rather than love as the normative sign of Spirit baptism or filling. Not every Christian has the gift of tongues (1Cor. 12:4-11&29-31), but the mark of every Christian is having divine love (John 13:35, Rom. 5:5, 8:9, 1John 4:7-21).
What does babbling and Matthew 6:9 have to do with each other? When, say, cars were first purchased by the public, shortly thereafter the realization set in that rules had to be engaged to operate them properly. That's is akin to Paul's mention and INSTRUCTION of tongues to the Corinthian church. He, by the leading of the Holy Spirit, set up guidelines for the operation of the church and not just tongues only. These letters were copied, passed around and read in most, if not all the churches. There was no need to keep harping, there were written instructions available. Yes, Paul wrote that prophecies shall fail; tongues shall cease; and knowledge, it shall vanish away in 1 Cor 13:8. But that only happens when " that which is perfect is come " in verse 10. Now if you say that " that which is perfect " is scripture, the completed bible ( I have heard it argued ) than prophecies have failed, tongues have ceased and KNOWLEDGE HAS VANISHED AWAY. Is that true? You can't cherry pick, you KNOW that knowledge has not vanished away. The bible, as we know it today. was finalized in the 16th century. Did tongues last until then? How about the Latin Vulgate in the 4th century? The Apostle Paul, in 1 Corinthians 13:1, said " Though I speak with the tongues of men AND OF ANGELS, and have not charity, I am become as sounding brass, or a tinkling cymbal." This is clearly two different methods of speaking in tongues, one exampled in Acts 2 and the other referenced by none other than Jesus in Mark 16:17- " And these signs shall follow them that believe; in My Name shall they cast out devils; they SHALL SPEAK WITH NEW TONGUES; They shall take up serpents; and if they drink any deadly thing, it shall not hurt them; they shall lay hands on the sick, and they shall recover." If you don't believe those signs follow you, they won't. They operate by faith, and faith works by love.
 
Key words? "Will be ", future tense. Past tense, Jews WERE saved first. . We're talking about what HAS happened. Period. Mic drop.
Future tense from Lord Jesus's perspective. We're talking about what HAS happened, He was teaching what WILL happen. Period. Mic drop.
 
What does babbling and Matthew 6:9 have to do with each other? When, say, cars were first purchased by the public, shortly thereafter the realization set in that rules had to be engaged to operate them properly. That's is akin to Paul's mention and INSTRUCTION of tongues to the Corinthian church. He, by the leading of the Holy Spirit, set up guidelines for the operation of the church and not just tongues only. These letters were copied, passed around and read in most, if not all the churches. There was no need to keep harping, there were written instructions available. Yes, Paul wrote that prophecies shall fail; tongues shall cease; and knowledge, it shall vanish away in 1 Cor 13:8. But that only happens when " that which is perfect is come " in verse 10. Now if you say that " that which is perfect " is scripture, the completed bible ( I have heard it argued ) than prophecies have failed, tongues have ceased and KNOWLEDGE HAS VANISHED AWAY. Is that true? You can't cherry pick, you KNOW that knowledge has not vanished away. The bible, as we know it today. was finalized in the 16th century. Did tongues last until then? How about the Latin Vulgate in the 4th century? The Apostle Paul, in 1 Corinthians 13:1, said " Though I speak with the tongues of men AND OF ANGELS, and have not charity, I am become as sounding brass, or a tinkling cymbal." This is clearly two different methods of speaking in tongues, one exampled in Acts 2 and the other referenced by none other than Jesus in Mark 16:17- " And these signs shall follow them that believe; in My Name shall they cast out devils; they SHALL SPEAK WITH NEW TONGUES; They shall take up serpents; and if they drink any deadly thing, it shall not hurt them; they shall lay hands on the sick, and they shall recover." If you don't believe those signs follow you, they won't. They operate by faith, and faith works by love.

What do babbling and Matthew 6:9 have to do with each other? Nothing; that is the point.
Paul preferred prophecy to babbling in his instructions to the Corinthians, and so do I.
However, Paul did not forbid glossolalia, so neither do I.

In my experience, tongues is a problematic doctrine the way some Pentecostals teach it,
when they view it rather than love per Mark 16:17 as the normative sign of Spirit baptism and filling vice
Paul's clear instruction that not all have any gift other than love per 1Cor. 13 and Rom. 5:5, although perfect love
is not attained in this earthly life. Denominations that believe in drinking poison have died out, despite believing.
 
And it's still " to the Jew first ", including salvation.
Again, plz define "Jew" according to the scripture. Per Acts. 2:5, Jews came from all surrounding regions; per Rom. 2:25-29, Jewish identity hinges upon lawkeeping.

For circumcision is indeed profitable if you keep the law; but if you are a breaker of the law, your circumcision has become uncircumcision. Therefore, if an uncircumcised man keeps the righteous requirements of the law, will not his uncircumcision be counted as circumcision? And will not the physically uncircumcised, if he fulfills the law, judge you who, even with your written code and circumcision, are a transgressor of the law? For he is not a Jew who is one outwardly, nor is circumcision that which is outward in the flesh; but he is a Jew who is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the Spirit, not in the letter; whose praise is not from men but from God. (Rom. 2:25-29)
 
What do babbling and Matthew 6:9 have to do with each other? Nothing; that is the point.
Paul preferred prophecy to babbling in his instructions to the Corinthians, and so do I.
However, Paul did not forbid glossolalia, so neither do I.

In my experience, tongues is a problematic doctrine the way some Pentecostals teach it,
when they view it rather than love per Mark 16:17 as the normative sign of Spirit baptism and filling vice
Paul's clear instruction that not all have any gift other than love per 1Cor. 13 and Rom. 5:5, although perfect love
is not attained in this earthly life. Denominations that believe in drinking poison have died out, despite believing.
Firstly, Paul NEVER mentioned babbling in relation to speaking in tongues, he spoke in tongues more than all who were in the Corinthian church. Babbling is your definition, not Paul's, because you don't believe. ".......: worship God: for the testimony of Jesus is the spirit of prophecy." Rev.19:10 The most important thing for a true Christian to do is testify (in word and deed) of Jesus. That's why Paul considered it more important. " In my experience, tongues.. ", YOU HAVE NO EXPERIENCE IN TONGUES! and that's why it is problematic to you, you don't believe. BTW, you couldn't forbid glossolalia,(speaking in tongues) if you wanted to, only to yourself, because you don't believe. ".... Faith worketh by love." Gal. 5:6. I have faith in what Jesus said in Mark 16:17 and I speak in tongues. You can never dissuade one with experience with a theory built on doubt in what Jesus says. Paul NEVER said " not all have any gift other than love ", no" faith, which works by love" (Gal. 5 :6), is the foundation for all the gifts of the Spirit, including speaking in tongues. " There is no fear in love: but perfect love casteth out fear..." 1 John 4:18, the "love of God is shed abroad in our hearts by the Holy Ghost which (Who) is given unto us." Romans 5:5. God's love is perfect and it's in the hearts of those who believe, we must choose to operate by it. Have crazy things been done in tongues, love, prophecy, preaching, etc., etc., yes, because people are involved, remember Jesus knows where Satan's seat is in the church (Rev 2:13) but that doesn't mean you throw the baby out with the bath water. Spiritual discernment, rather than man's religious tradition, helps to differentiate between what is Godly and what is not. I once heard of an evangelist who was ministering in a foreign land ( I forget who). When he arrived he noticed there were some who had missing eyes and inquired why, was there a certain disease in that region. They answered no, but that the Bible, in Matthew 5:28-29, says that" if thy right eye offend thee pluck it out." They took it literally, having not been taught the spiritual implications of the scripture. I suspect that the same happens to those who purposely drink deadly things, not being properly taught. Speaking in tongues is not a requirement for salvation, you don't HAVE to, but you GET to. Everything Jesus says is mine, as a believer, I want.
 
Again, plz define "Jew" according to the scripture. Per Acts. 2:5, Jews came from all surrounding regions; per Rom. 2:25-29, Jewish identity hinges upon lawkeeping.

For circumcision is indeed profitable if you keep the law; but if you are a breaker of the law, your circumcision has become uncircumcision. Therefore, if an uncircumcised man keeps the righteous requirements of the law, will not his uncircumcision be counted as circumcision? And will not the physically uncircumcised, if he fulfills the law, judge you who, even with your written code and circumcision, are a transgressor of the law? For he is not a Jew who is one outwardly, nor is circumcision that which is outward in the flesh; but he is a Jew who is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the Spirit, not in the letter; whose praise is not from men but from God. (Rom. 2:25-29)
Those revelations that Paul received were not known when, through the Jews, the church was born. A Jew, when the church was born, were those born of the twelve tribes. The first mention of a proselyte Jew is in Acts 6:5, Nicolas of Antioch. There is no other mention of proselytes earlier, so we can't assume there were, even from the surrounding regions. If you do that's just your opinion, not God's Word.