Loss of salvation???

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Sorry Roger316.

I will not be sitting here an hour responding to the above.

If you ever care to address one topic,
let me know.

And it's been rather dishonest of you to insist that you're not a calvinist when all your theologyh is calvinist in nature.
You seem pretty busy.
 
You have stated that God does not want all men to be saved.

That took long enough.

So, YOU claim I don't understand the NT.....

seems to me that YOU do not understand it.

It clearly and specifially states that God loves the whole world
and that God desires that all men be saved....

however, you have just stated that not all men are saved because God does not want them to.

And
this is an uderstandable reply.
Why?
Because if you CORRECTLY answered,,,,,you'd leave calvinism right now.

What you need to do is harmonize WHY all men are not saved
with
God's desire that they be saved.

You have NOT done that but you have correctly replied as a reformed/calvinist would due to their theology.


HERE IS THE CORRECT ANSWER ROGER:

All men are not saved as God desires....
BECAUSE THEY DO NOT WISH TO BE SAVED.

BECAUSE THERE ARE CONDITIONS THEY ARE NOT WILLING TO MEET.

FREE WILL causes such problems to calvinist theology!
Why pray for them then? What do you expect God to do about it?
 
Would you not have to "presume" that the pronouns apply to you personally and not others?

IOW, do the pronouns apply to anyone or just those who the author had in mind?
Those who are in Christ Jesus/those who believe in the name of the Son of God. ✝️
 
Is it so?

The devil, who deceived them, was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone where the beast and the false prophet are. And they will be tormented day and night forever and ever. (Rev. 20:10)

Death and Hades were cast into the lake of fire. This is the second death. And anyone not found written in the Book of Life was cast into the lake of fire. (Rev. 20:18-19)
I wish they would change the editing feature here and give us more time to edit after we publish. The reason I say this is i am sure you know your scriptural references are wrong, but probably did not see until it was to late.


Anyway, I understand why you saying what you are saying. If that was all there was on the issue you might be correct. But it isn't. Thessalonians speaks on what this second death is, It saysthe Lord In flaming fire will take vengeance on them that know not God, and that obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ. For they shall be punished with everlasting destruction from the presence of the Lord, and from the glory of his power. And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming: This is the Second death. In flaming fire They shall be punished with everlasting destruction and the wicked one shall be destroyed by the brightness of His coming.

Rev 21:8 But the fearful, and unbelieving, and the abominable, and murderers, and whoremongers, and sorcerers, and idolaters, and all liars, shall have their part in the lake which burneth with fire and brimstone: which is the second death.

2Thess 1:7 And to you who are troubled rest with us, when the Lord Jesus shall be revealed from heaven with his mighty angels,
2Thess 1:8 In flaming fire taking vengeance on them that know not God, and that obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ:
2Thess 1:9 Who shall be punished with everlasting destruction from the presence of the Lord, and from the glory of his power;
2Thess 2:8 And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming:
 
Sinless perfection is not implied.

1 John 5:18 - We know [absolutely] that anyone born of God does not [deliberately and knowingly] practice committing sin, but the One Who was begotten of God carefully watches over and protects him [Christ’s divine presence within him preserves him against the evil], and the wicked one does not lay hold (get a grip) on him or touch [him]. (AMPC)

As Greek scholar AT Robertson explains:

1 John 5:16
Sinneth not
(ουχ αμαρτανε). Lineal present active indicative, "does not keep on sinning," as he has already shown in 1 John 3:4-10.
That is a not true. Your post contradicts itself. You say sinless perfection is not implied and your Greek scholar reference says we do not keep on sinning. If you don't see the difference between what you said and your reference I am not sure what else needs to be said other than the present active indicative is an on going action from the one being spoken of. And it is being stated as a fact. Something that is established now and is ongoing. The Greek agrees with the CLV provided below. It needs to be translated "not sinning" because that is what is being said,.

https://studybible.info/CLV/1 John 5:18 We are aware that everyone who has been begotten of God is not sinning, but he who is begotten of God is keeping himself, and the wicked one is not touching him."
 
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Please finish the logic of the analogy:

Sin onto death is punishment.​
Punishment is for those whom chastening was rejected....​
Parents chasten their children.​
Parents will punish children who refuse to heed chastening.​
Parents will kill their children for whom chastening was rejected...
When did parents become God who alone has the authority over life and death?

You try to take the analogy too far. Always a danger. :)
 
That Christ paid such a high price for the salvation of those who believe in His death, burial and resurrection on the third day, and that He taught Paul that salvation has nothing to do with works under the Gospel of Grace, the negations some have put forth in these forums is them saying that it IS their works that allegedly supplements that high price paid, which cheapens what Christ did to the level of human effort.

Bottom line...if salvation were at all based upon our efforts, that only is an attempt at assuming a second escape from Hell when, in fact, there's only one...


MM
 
When did parents become God who alone has the authority over life and death?

You try to take the analogy too far. Always a danger. :)
Good point. Forget who could be reading at times. Guess I should include disclaimers.

Just wondering about the divine discipline stuff and thinking back to some OC - Deut12:18-21; Lev20:9; Ex21:15-17.
 
That Christ paid such a high price for the salvation of those who believe in His death, burial and resurrection on the third day, and that He taught Paul that salvation has nothing to do with works under the Gospel of Grace, the negations some have put forth in these forums is them saying that it IS their works that allegedly supplements that high price paid, which cheapens what Christ did to the level of human effort.

Bottom line...if salvation were at all based upon our efforts, that only is an attempt at assuming a second escape from Hell when, in fact, there's only one...


MM
If only you think beyond simple binaries.
 
Please finish the logic of the analogy:

Sin onto death is punishment.​
Punishment is for those whom chastening was rejected....​
Parents chasten their children.​
Parents will punish children who refuse to heed chastening.​
Parents will kill their children for whom chastening was rejected...

Big difference.
God kills, yet knowing they will live with Him.

Even so...
Under the Law of Moses parents would take a reprobate son before the elders to be stoned to death.
Don't you recall that passage?

God will take home early certain Christians who willfully and habitually reject what He has made clear to them.

Did you not read what I posted about Paul's words concerning those who abused meeting together and partaking of the elements?
Paul explained that some amongst them became sick, and some even died for that reason?

Why did you not know this?
 
That is a not true. Your post contradicts itself. You say sinless perfection is not implied and your Greek scholar reference says we do not keep on sinning. If you don't see the difference between what you said and your reference I am not sure what else needs to be said other than the present active indicative is an on going action from the one being spoken of. And it is being stated as a fact. Something that is established now and is ongoing. The Greek agrees with the CLV provided below. It needs to be translated "not sinning" because that is what is being said,.

https://studybible.info/CLV/1 John 5:18 We are aware that everyone who has been begotten of God is not sinning, but he who is begotten of God is keeping himself, and the wicked one is not touching him."
There is no contradiction and AT Robertson was not implying sinless perfection and he specified in 1 John 3:6 does not keep on sinning and lives a life of sin, not mere occasional acts of sin, the habit of sin.

In 1 John 3:9, AT Robertson is specific

Doeth no sin
(αμαρτιαν ου ποιε). Linear present active indicative as in verse 1 John 3:4 like αμαρτανε in verse 1 John 3:8. The child of God does not have the habit of sin.

His seed
(σπερμα αυτου). God's seed, "the divine principle of life" (Vincent). Cf. 1 John 3:1.

And he cannot sin (κα ου δυνατα αμαρτανειν). This is a wrong translation, for this English naturally means "and he cannot commit sin" as if it were κα ου δυνατα αμαρτειν or αμαρτησα (second aorist or first aorist active infinitive). The present active infinitive αμαρτανειν can only mean "and he cannot go on sinning," as is true of αμαρτανε in verse 1 John 3:8 and αμαρτανων in verse 1 John 3:6. For the aorist subjunctive to commit a sin see αμαρτητε and αμαρτη in 1 John 2:1. A great deal of false theology has grown out of a misunderstanding of the tense of αμαρτανειν here. Paul has precisely John's idea in Romans 6:1 επιμενωμεν τη αμαρτια (shall we continue in sin, present active linear subjunctive) in contrast with αμαρτησωμεν in Romans 6:15 (shall we commit a sin, first aorist active subjunctive).

1 John 3 - Robertson's Word Pictures in the New Testament - Bible Commentaries - StudyLight.org https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/eng/rwp/1-john-3.html
 
Yes, the Text is written for everyone and then mainly for those who believe.

But talking with those who have not left and don't think we can, or why would anyone want to leave, seems a pretty closed loop.
Jesus spoke within that loop, and if Jesus asked anyone any question, it wasn't to gain knowledge but to teach what He already knew. And included within that loop, he knew that Peter would deny him three times. But, within that knowledge was the awareness that Peter possessed at least the minimum measure of trust, the mustard seed of faith, required to return to Him once bidden to after he, I think inarguably, fell, three times. Although it is argued, I don't think Judas had even a starter batch of faith. He was in it for, and always looking to gain more, wealth.

I'm firm on my position in regard to one similar, the rich young ruler having kept all the commandments from his youth, which ultimately amounted to a dunghill of works because he did not believe that he had been poor and wretched and in need of the Savior for life.
 
Why pray for them then? What do you expect God to do about it?
God reveals Himself.
God offers.
Man responds.
God has conditions.
Man accepts.
or rejects.

I didn't mention anything about praying.
Not going down any rabbit holes.
 
What is the distinction between the many who are "weak and sick" and the "quite a few have died"?

Everyone ought to examine themselves before they eat of the bread and drink
from the cup. For those who eat and drink without discerning the body of Christ
eat and drink judgment on themselves. That is why many among you are weak
and sick, and a number of you have fallen asleep." 1 Corinthians 11:28-30​


In their case? Of disrespecting gathering and partaking of the elements?

Weak and sick =
God's warning discipline to the believer.
Still time to repent and recover.

Have died? =
Let it be known to all what happens to those who willfully keep ignoring God's warning discipline.


If you see any brother or sister commit a sin that does not lead to death, you should pray
and God will give them life. I refer to those whose sin does not lead to death. There is a sin
that leads to death. I am not saying that you should pray about that. All wrongdoing is sin,
and there is sin that does not lead to death."
1 John 5:16-17​



.......

 
You're saying that God leaves atheists alone?
But He chastens His own children.
Correct.
Sounds like God treats atheists better than His own children.
Not better. Just not his child to discipline.


Also,
In your previous post you stated that God causes atheists to have miserable deaths.
How is that leaving them alone?

This sounds confusing.
Sounds confusing to me the way you worded it.
Show me that post where I said that, please.

grace and peace ....