Speaking in Tongues: Its Origins [Ancient and Modern], Purpose, and Power

You have basically verified that Tongues is still alive and it's being done properly.

You proved there is a catch phrase you notice relative to your native language that someone is speaking who IS NOT native American nor should even know this phrase exists...

YOU, JUST PROVED TONGUES IS STILL A GIFT ACTIVE OF THE HOLY SPIRIT!!

YOU, JUST PROVED THAT IT IS NOT ((FAKE)) OR JIBBERISH, BUT ACTUAL LANGUAGE SPOKEN!!

GLORY TO GOD!!

HE WORKS IN MYSTERIOUS WAYS !!

I'm not quite sure how you reach your stated conclusions. That phrase isn't relative to my native language. I'm not sure how you missed the part where I wrote that there was no interpretation, and how I thought they were crazy.

The reason I posted the phrase my grandmother(and others)uttered at different places, is because, after I became a Christian, I learned from 1st Corinthians why I thought my gram, and others, were crazy. Why? Because they were 'speaking' contrary to bibilical instruction. I hope this clarifies your misunderstanding of my post you quoted,

You said your Grandmother spoke it?

It meant something to her.

Anyone then using that same phrase would not know its meaning, it's not like they were picking that specific phrase to use.

Be careful that in your ridicule of awesome manifestations of the Holy Spirit that you poorly understand and have never experienced that you don't blaspheme against the Holy Spirit and commit the unpardonable sin! In my next planned thread I will provide an outline of my forthcoming refutations of all the bogus objections to modern speaking in tongues. So be prepared to get into the Word.

A secret language between you and God? God knows the thoughts of our heart even before they enter our lips. Remember God is the interpreter. He gives words and interprets the meaning. He is not served by human hands.

That's not the interpretation I am hearing. Its more like. Man, ...the sign is in respect to those who believe not prophecy. making it (prophecy) to no effect by the oral traditions of men "the sign seekers".

Study the foundation of the doctrine of tongues (Isaiah 28) and the understanding of that law (1 Corinthians 14:21-22. )

And for all that they make the word of God prophecy without effect by their oral tradition of natural unconverted man..... that must walk by sight. They refuse to hear the word. The sign confirms unbelief no faith .

In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord. Wherefore "tongues are for a sign", not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe.1 Corithian14:21-22

The next part of this thread will be devoted to debunking these false 8 claims about speaking in tongues:
(1) Speaking in tongues is a sign for Jewish unbelievers and therefore not valid after the apostolic age (citing 1 Corinthians 14:21-22)..
(2) 1 Corinthians 13:12 teaches that once the biblical canon is completed, speaking in tongues will no longer be a valid spiritual gift.
(3) The NT teaches that speaking in tongues always expresses human languages, as on the Day of Pentecost.
(4) Modern speaking in tongues is gibberish and never a human language.
(5) Paul ranks speaking in tongues as the least valuable spiritual gift.
(6) God does not intend every Christian to be able to speak in tongues.
(7) Speaking in tongues is always condemned by Paul in the absence of an interpreter.
(8) Speaking in tongues serves no essential purpose for petitionary prayer.

Some americans are really hard to understand I have no idea what they are saying at the best of times even when they are apparently speaking english. And some of their church practises seem totally over the top and wild and waaay too noisy. However if they are praising God then who am I to say they are drunk or crazy.

In Ephesians 5:18 Paul ocntrasts intoxication from wine with intoxication from being Spirit-filled. Indeed, in the outpouring of the Spirit in Acts 2, the onlookers think the 120 tongues speakers are drunk, and so, Peter has to reassure them that they are speaking in tongues in fulfilment of Joel 2:38 (see Acts 2:15).

There's nothing to debunk if you wish to go strictly by Scripture and also Church history. However, you can always adjust Scripture to fit your theology. People keep forgetting what the apostle Paul stated clearly -- that he would rather speak 5 intelligible words of prophecy than 10,000 words in tongues. That should you tell you something.

O yes, it DOES tell me something:
(a) It tells me that you deliberately omitted the first 2 words of that verse, "in church," because those 2 words destroy your argument!
In other words, Paul would rather speak "5 words' in prophecy in church because uninterpreted tongues create disorder in public worship attended by outsiders.
(b) It tells me that you didn't bother to consider the prior verse: "I thank God that I speak in tongues more than all of you (14:18)." The apparent tension between these 2 verses dissolves once Paul's high view of private tongues at home is recognized.
"He who speaks in a tongue builds up (edifies) himself (14:4)."
"If there is no interpreter, let him be silent in church and speak to himself and to God (at home--14:28).

Nehemiah, you have unwittingly helped me debunk the 7th specified common objection to speaking in tongues: i e.
(7) Speaking in tongues is always condemned by Paul in the absence of an interpreter.

I have been in meetings where "interpretation of tongue" was given..after "tongue"
was spoken.
---
It seems that you did not have good experience with "tongues" - spoken at meetings/services.

(at home--14:28) Not sure why at home is added?

The Holy Spirit is the interpreter. Its is his word that he interprets and therefore we believe him who works in us and not some private interpretation of a sinner as a oral tradition of men.

"In the church" is when two or three people gather together in his name. If there are only one person then the idea of prophecy outside of talking to one self is simply meditation on what has been revealed. Tongue is prophecy, God's word spoken in all the languages of the world .It is a sign that confirms unbelief.(no faith) nothing more and nothing less

You should begin with the foundation of tongues (.Isaiah 28) many sign seekers leave out the foundation of the doctrine It helps define what tongues are why God uses them as a sign that confirms unbelief.(no faith)

What do you think the sign of tongue confirm when looking at the law.?(yet for all that will they not hear me, says the Lord.) Will you hear and believe?

In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord. Wherefore "tongues are for a sign", not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe.1 Corinthians 14:21=22

Since all the spiritual gift were given for the edification of others within the church, my argument is strongly upheld by Scripture.

It would seem some confuse the word spiritual as in not seen with literal as that seen . We walk according to the eternal, called faith. The spiritual sign unbelief confirms no faith .And yet for all that they still refuse to believe the word of God over the tradition of their denomination.

Spiritul the eternal not seen literl the temporal as that seen .

2 Corinthians 4:18 While we look not at the things which are seen, but at the things which are not seen: for the things which are seen are temporal; but the things which are not seen are eternal.

Isaiah 8 informs us if they do not speak according to the law of God's word prophecy, as it is written they have no light in them.

Note... Things of men= bold in black
Things of God = bold in red
Born again belivers = bold in green

1 Corinthians 14:21-23 (KJV) In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord. Wherefore "tongues are for a sign", not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe. If therefore the whole church be come together into one place, and all speak with tongues, and there come in those that are unlearned, or unbelievers, will they not say that ye are mad?

Do you understand that using a negative verse and a positive verse means they cancel each other out?

Not sure what you mean by that. Can you give me example?

Does the the sign of tongues that does confirms unbelief, cancel out to idea it could represent those who do believe prophecy ?
Either as a sign it confirms unbelief (no faith or beleive, faith) ? In that way no man could serve two masters.

Sorry for the delay. I'm multitasking today.
If we look at Paul's writing in 1 Corinthians 14:21-22, we can see him paraphrasing a recurring theme from the old testament-about Israel refusing to obey, and thus being enslaved by various people(speaking different tongues) throughout history. This is a negative, and to apply it to modern 'tongues speakers' is to misapply scripture. To take the rest of chapter 14 as a positive statement supporting modern 'tongues speakers, you have ignored Paul's designation of tongues as a sign for unbelieving Jews. If we look at the day of Pentecost in Acts 2, we read that 3,000 Jews were there from all over the world-Jews who clearly spoke languages from those places, or else they wouldn't have been amazed that Galilaeans were speaking in the languages of those other places about the wonderful works of God.

Hi thanks for the reply.

Israel as a outward Jew in respect to the corrupted flesh of mankind is used to represent unbelief of any nation. All fall short of the glory of God. Those men called Jews (outward) refused to hear the word of God making it without effect as a sign against them.

It was not so much being enslaved by various people(speaking different tongues) throughout history. (We do not wrestle against flesh and blood) .But being enslaved by the oral traditions of the fathers. kings e.t.c. Judgement begins at the church .

They as unbelievers (no faith) saw no evil in making the word of God to no effect. Turning things upside down and therefore taking away the understanding of the Holy Spirit.

Isaiah 29:16 Surely your turning of things upside down shall be esteemed as the potter's clay: for shall the work say of him that made it, He made me not? or shall the thing framed say of him that framed it, He had no understanding?

Belief, faith is not in respect to Israel or any nation and neither is evil .

It would seem I was misunderstood, could be the way I said it. I agree it is a negative they would seem to turn that upside down . The negative does apply to modern 'tongues speakers as a sign against them. Two reasons, one it was never designed as a sign to confirm a blessing rather than a curse that speaks of unbelief, no faith. But also tongues/ prophecy/God's word is spoken of in all the languages of the world like any manner of prophecy has been fulfilled what they had in part before the last Chapter/book was added . It is sealed with seven seals till the end of time, the last day..

Today there are many means to help one nation understand the language of another. They even have a electronic device that allows two people to share the gospel with each other that do have language barriers.

If we look at the day of Pentecost in Acts 2, we read that 3,000 Jews were there from all over the world-Jews who clearly spoke languages from those places, or else they wouldn't have been amazed that Galilaeans were speaking in the languages of those other places about the wonderful works of God

Not sure where the idea of 3000 Jews comes in? Did you mean Jewish believers as a inward born out of every nation under heaven. born again Jew? It would seem verse five is describing a inward Jew as devout men, out of every nation under heaven.( Christianity )

One question. Are all the house where they were sitting the same group of verse 5?

And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled all the house where they were sitting. And there appeared unto them cloven tongues like as of fire, and it sat upon each of them. And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance. 5 And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven. Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language. And they were all amazed and marveled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans? And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born? Acts2 :2-7

Seems like we could be in agreement, so I probably misunderstood what I initially responded to, and this is why I've often noted tha written communication is hard to understand sometimes.