Psalm 110, Jesus, and the Book of Hebrews-Flaw and Faith

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.

newton3003

Senior Member
Feb 4, 2017
437
42
28
#1
Hebrews 5:5-6 says, “…Christ did not exalt himself to be made a high priest, but was appointed by Him who said to him, ‘You are my Son, today I have begotten you’; as he says also in another place ‘You are a priest forever, after the order of Melchizedek.’ The second quote is from Psalms 110: 4 which says, “The LORD has sworn and will not change his mind, ‘You are a priest forever after the order of Melchizedek.’” (The first quote is from Psalm 2:7.)

But who was God speaking to, when He said that? Psalm 110 opens by saying in verses 1-3, “The LORD says to my Lord: ‘Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool.’ The LORD sends forth from Zion your mighty scepter. Rule in the midst of your enemies! Your people will offer themselves freely on the day of your power, in holy garments; from the womb of the morning, the dew of your youth will be yours.” Chapter 5 of Hebrews infers that in Psalm 110, God is speaking to Jesus.

But is he, if Jesus is the son of David? How can one’s son be one’s Lord? Jesus himself asks the question to the Pharisees in Matthew 22:43: “What do you think about the Christ? Whose son is he?” They respond in verse 43, “The son of David.” Jesus then asks, “How is it then that David, in the Spirit, calls him Lord,” then quoting Psalm 110:1-3 above. Jesus then asks in verse 45, “If then David calls him Lord, how is he his son?”

Jesus here, seems to deny being the son of David. Yet it seems by inference that Hebrews argues on the basis of Jesus being the son of David that he is the son of God. Therein lies the flaw. You cannot show by virtue of Psalm 110 that Jesus is the son of God, if you believe that Jesus is the son of David if Jesus denies being the son of David.

Two things to consider:

It has been said that the Hebrews whom the speaker, being Paul or someone else, was speaking to, had already considered themselves Christians, accepting Jesus to be the son of God.

Secondly, as Timothy 2:3-16 says that ALL scripture is breathed out by God, and the Bible, taken as a whole, establishes that the things written about God and Jesus are to be accepted on faith. On that basis we accept Jesus as being the son of God.

How do we then accept Jesus as being the son of David when he himself denies by inference that he is in Matthew 22? Matthew 1:1 starts out by saying, “The book of the genealogy of Jesus Christ, the SON OF DAVID, the son of Abraham.” Did Matthew know something that Jesus didn’t, considering Jesus apparently denies being the son of David in Matthew 22?

The Pharisees couldn’t answer Jesus’ question to them. Maybe there’s an answer somewhere?
 

newton3003

Senior Member
Feb 4, 2017
437
42
28
#5
here's 'the flaw' ---

that's not what He is saying
So what is he trying to accomplish by asking the questions he poses in Matthew 22 to the Pharisees? His questions do nothing to help his cause, then.
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
36,689
13,141
113
#6
So what is he trying to accomplish by asking the questions he poses in Matthew 22 to the Pharisees? His questions do nothing to help his cause, then.
He doesn't say He is not the Son of David; He asks them how it is that David calls the Messiah 'Lord' ?
we're supposed to figure out this mystery:

Son of Man = Son of God

i dunno about not helping His cause or being ineffectual, lol --

no one could say a word in reply,
and from that day on no one dared to ask Him any more questions.
(Matthew 22:46)

first He shut the mouths of the Herodians, astonishing them with His answer about paying the Roman tax. then He shut the mouths of the Sadducees, astounding them with His teaching about marriage & the resurrection. then, here, He shuts the mouths of the Pharisees, leaving them speechless with His reply about which is the greatest commandment - ain't even one of the 10 - and with this question. all these groups were trying to set traps for Him, to stop Him from teaching any more and turn the people against Him, but they all fell into their own traps and by His wisdom they were revealed as fools, not understanding the scripture and having no knowledge of who the Messiah really is.

He's not denying that He is the Son of David or that the Son of David is the Messiah.
He's pointing out that the Messiah is unsearchably more than they knew.

without controversy great is the mystery of godliness!
God was manifest in the flesh
(1 Timothy 3:16)
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
24,531
12,976
113
#7
Jesus here, seems to deny being the son of David. Yet it seems by inference that Hebrews argues on the basis of Jesus being the son of David that he is the son of God. Therein lies the flaw.
The flaw lies in your TOTAL MISUNDERSTANDING.

"Son of David" = "the BRANCH" = descendant of David from the tribe of Judah. TRUE

"Son of God" = only begotten Son of God = God the Son = God. ALSO TRUE.

So when David said (by inspiration) "the LORD said unto my Lord" what he meant is that God the Father is the LORD (YHWH) but Jesus is his Lord and Savior.
 
Oct 12, 2012
1,563
929
113
68
#8
He doesn't say He is not the Son of David; He asks them how it is that David calls the Messiah 'Lord' ?
we're supposed to figure out this mystery:

Son of Man = Son of God

i dunno about not helping His cause or being ineffectual, lol --

no one could say a word in reply,
and from that day on no one dared to ask Him any more questions.
(Matthew 22:46)

first He shut the mouths of the Herodians, astonishing them with His answer about paying the Roman tax. then He shut the mouths of the Sadducees, astounding them with His teaching about marriage & the resurrection. then, here, He shuts the mouths of the Pharisees, leaving them speechless with His reply about which is the greatest commandment - ain't even one of the 10 - and with this question. all these groups were trying to set traps for Him, to stop Him from teaching any more and turn the people against Him, but they all fell into their own traps and by His wisdom they were revealed as fools, not understanding the scripture and having no knowledge of who the Messiah really is.

He's not denying that He is the Son of David or that the Son of David is the Messiah.
He's pointing out that the Messiah is unsearchably more than they knew.

without controversy great is the mystery of godliness!
God was manifest in the flesh
(1 Timothy 3:16)
Nice!! Good answer! This brood of vipers had no idea Who was standing before them! Jesus was the Son of man and the Son of God. If Jesus does not come from the line of David and Abraham, then He cannot be the Son of God! Jesus was not declaring that He was not the Son of David, but proclaiming that scripture was being fulfilled in Himself in their presents!
 

newton3003

Senior Member
Feb 4, 2017
437
42
28
#9
The flaw lies in your TOTAL MISUNDERSTANDING.

"Son of David" = "the BRANCH" = descendant of David from the tribe of Judah. TRUE

"Son of God" = only begotten Son of God = God the Son = God. ALSO TRUE.

So when David said (by inspiration) "the LORD said unto my Lord" what he meant is that God the Father is the LORD (YHWH) but Jesus is his Lord and Savior.
I repeat: How can one’s son be one’s Lord? Jesus himself asks the question to the Pharisees in Matthew 22:43: “What do you think about the Christ? Whose son is he?” They respond in verse 43, “The son of David.” Jesus then asks, “How is it then that David, in the Spirit, calls him Lord,” then quoting Psalm 110:1-3 above. Jesus then asks in verse 45, “If then David calls him Lord, how is he his son?”
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
24,531
12,976
113
#11
I repeat: How can one’s son be one’s Lord?
That was clearly explained. "Son" meant descendant, and since that descendant was God manifest in the flesh, He was Lord. No need to be obtuse.
 

FlyingDove

Senior Member
Dec 27, 2017
1,260
431
83
#12
“If then David calls him Lord, how is he his son?”

Scripture proclaims: The Father, Son & Holy Spirit are all God.

Jesus is God: Isa 7:14 & 9:6, Micah 5:2, Matt 1:23, Jn 1:1 & 20:28, 1 Tim 3:16 Titus 2:13 Rom 9:5 Rev 1:8.

Holy Spirit (alway's capitalized showing deity) is God: Ps 139:7-8, Acts 5:3-4 & 13:2, Eph 4:30, 1 Cor 2:10-11, 12:4-7, 2 Cor 3:16 & 13:14

God the Son/Jesus the Christ, pre-existed prior the his incarnation & is our Gen 1, Creator/God:

John 1:
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
(NOTE: Before the flash point of creation. The Word (Rev 13:19 Jesus) was with God (The Father) and was/is also God)

3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
(NOTE: God-Pre-incarnate Christ MADE/CREATED ALL THINGS! Christ/Son of God is the Gen 1 creator)

Col 1:16 For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him:
(NOTE: Christ CREATED ALL THINGS! God the Son/Christ/Jesus is our worlds Gen 1 creator)

Heb 1:2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;
(NOTE: God the Son MADE THE WORLDS! God the Son/Christ/Jesus is the Gen 1 creator)

Jn:3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
(NOTE: God the Father gave/sent his Son)

Jn:6:38 For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.
(NOTE: God the Son/Jesus say's; I was sent from heaven by the God the Father. Before the flash point of creation, God Father sends the Son. Its here God the Son begins the work of reconciliton/salvation.)

Jn:6:62 What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?
(NOTE: The Son of man (Christ in the flesh) ascends (Acts 1:9-12). Going back to where he pre-existed)

Jn 8:23 Jesus said unto them, Ye are from beneath; I am from above: ye are of this world; I am not of this world.
(NOTE: The SON of God/Jesus say's, he's from above & not from this world)

Jn:8:58 Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.
(NOTE: The Son of God proclaims he preexisted)

Ok, Jesus is our creator God. He breath's into Adam's nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul (Gen 2:7 & 7:22.) Mary is found with child via God the Holy Spirit (Matt 1:18)

So, God the Son is the Vine & the Branch. The Creator/Father of Adam & David (Vine). And the son of Adam & David via His incarnation. Jesus was showing these, so called, Doctors of the law, just how lacking their understanding really was.
 
Oct 12, 2012
1,563
929
113
68
#13
But he IS, the son of God, isn't he? You stated the flaw so eloquently!
Bro I understand what you're saying, you're putting these three or four Scriptures side by side. You're putting way to much emphasis on every literal Word. You're trying to make them match up with each other; this is also why these people walked away from Jesus. They were trying to interpret this scripture through a false lens.
 
Apr 15, 2017
2,867
653
113
#14
Hebrews 5:5-6 says, “…Christ did not exalt himself to be made a high priest, but was appointed by Him who said to him, ‘You are my Son, today I have begotten you’; as he says also in another place ‘You are a priest forever, after the order of Melchizedek.’ The second quote is from Psalms 110: 4 which says, “The LORD has sworn and will not change his mind, ‘You are a priest forever after the order of Melchizedek.’” (The first quote is from Psalm 2:7.)

But who was God speaking to, when He said that? Psalm 110 opens by saying in verses 1-3, “The LORD says to my Lord: ‘Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool.’ The LORD sends forth from Zion your mighty scepter. Rule in the midst of your enemies! Your people will offer themselves freely on the day of your power, in holy garments; from the womb of the morning, the dew of your youth will be yours.” Chapter 5 of Hebrews infers that in Psalm 110, God is speaking to Jesus.

But is he, if Jesus is the son of David? How can one’s son be one’s Lord? Jesus himself asks the question to the Pharisees in Matthew 22:43: “What do you think about the Christ? Whose son is he?” They respond in verse 43, “The son of David.” Jesus then asks, “How is it then that David, in the Spirit, calls him Lord,” then quoting Psalm 110:1-3 above. Jesus then asks in verse 45, “If then David calls him Lord, how is he his son?”

Jesus here, seems to deny being the son of David. Yet it seems by inference that Hebrews argues on the basis of Jesus being the son of David that he is the son of God. Therein lies the flaw. You cannot show by virtue of Psalm 110 that Jesus is the son of God, if you believe that Jesus is the son of David if Jesus denies being the son of David.

Two things to consider:

It has been said that the Hebrews whom the speaker, being Paul or someone else, was speaking to, had already considered themselves Christians, accepting Jesus to be the son of God.

Secondly, as Timothy 2:3-16 says that ALL scripture is breathed out by God, and the Bible, taken as a whole, establishes that the things written about God and Jesus are to be accepted on faith. On that basis we accept Jesus as being the son of God.

How do we then accept Jesus as being the son of David when he himself denies by inference that he is in Matthew 22? Matthew 1:1 starts out by saying, “The book of the genealogy of Jesus Christ, the SON OF DAVID, the son of Abraham.” Did Matthew know something that Jesus didn’t, considering Jesus apparently denies being the son of David in Matthew 22?

The Pharisees couldn’t answer Jesus’ question to them. Maybe there’s an answer somewhere?
Mat 22:41 While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them,
Mat 22:42 Saying, What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The Son of David.
Mat 22:43 He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying,
Mat 22:44 The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?
Mat 22:45 If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?
Mat 22:46 And no man was able to answer him a word, neither durst any man from that day forth ask him any more questions.

Jesus is saying that the Christ will be the Lord, and the son of David.

He was not denying being the son of David.
 

JohnRH

Junior Member
Mar 5, 2018
534
259
63
#15
Hebrews 5:5-6 says, “…Christ did not exalt himself to be made a high priest, but was appointed by Him who said to him, ‘You are my Son, today I have begotten you’; as he says also in another place ‘You are a priest forever, after the order of Melchizedek.’ The second quote is from Psalms 110: 4 which says, “The LORD has sworn and will not change his mind, ‘You are a priest forever after the order of Melchizedek.’” (The first quote is from Psalm 2:7.)

But who was God speaking to, when He said that? Psalm 110 opens by saying in verses 1-3, “The LORD says to my Lord: ‘Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool.’ The LORD sends forth from Zion your mighty scepter. Rule in the midst of your enemies! Your people will offer themselves freely on the day of your power, in holy garments; from the womb of the morning, the dew of your youth will be yours.” Chapter 5 of Hebrews infers that in Psalm 110, God is speaking to Jesus.

But is he, if Jesus is the son of David? How can one’s son be one’s Lord? Jesus himself asks the question to the Pharisees in Matthew 22:43: “What do you think about the Christ? Whose son is he?” They respond in verse 43, “The son of David.” Jesus then asks, “How is it then that David, in the Spirit, calls him Lord,” then quoting Psalm 110:1-3 above. Jesus then asks in verse 45, “If then David calls him Lord, how is he his son?”

Jesus here, seems to deny being the son of David. Yet it seems by inference that Hebrews argues on the basis of Jesus being the son of David that he is the son of God. Therein lies the flaw. You cannot show by virtue of Psalm 110 that Jesus is the son of God, if you believe that Jesus is the son of David if Jesus denies being the son of David.

Two things to consider:

It has been said that the Hebrews whom the speaker, being Paul or someone else, was speaking to, had already considered themselves Christians, accepting Jesus to be the son of God.

Secondly, as Timothy 2:3-16 says that ALL scripture is breathed out by God, and the Bible, taken as a whole, establishes that the things written about God and Jesus are to be accepted on faith. On that basis we accept Jesus as being the son of God.

How do we then accept Jesus as being the son of David when he himself denies by inference that he is in Matthew 22? Matthew 1:1 starts out by saying, “The book of the genealogy of Jesus Christ, the SON OF DAVID, the son of Abraham.” Did Matthew know something that Jesus didn’t, considering Jesus apparently denies being the son of David in Matthew 22?

The Pharisees couldn’t answer Jesus’ question to them. Maybe there’s an answer somewhere?
Matthew 22:45 If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?
Through the incarnation - that's how.
Jesus asked the Pharisees a rhetorical question because they were denying that He is the Lord; not because He was denying being the son of David.
Revelation 22:16 I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David ...
 

Deade

Called of God
Dec 17, 2017
16,724
10,530
113
77
Vinita, Oklahoma, USA
yeshuaofisrael.org
#16
Matthew 22:45 If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?
Through the incarnation - that's how.
Jesus asked the Pharisees a rhetorical question because they were denying that He is the Lord; not because He was denying being the son of David.
Revelation 22:16 I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David ...
Let us not forget that Jesus was Mary's son and she is a descendant of David. :cool:
 
R

Rasputin_OZ

Guest
#17
Yahweh said to my Master, ……..