How the Pre-Trib Rapture Became Popular in the Modern Church

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AnnG

AnnG

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Runningman said:
Pre-tribbers believe that 2 Thessalonians 2 is their one and only Bible verse that proves a pre-trib rapture. Not only do the words used not support a pre-trib ratpure, but the context doesn't fit a pre-trib rapture either.

For example, pre-tribbers are looking to be gathered to Jesus when He returns, but 2 Thessalonians 2 says Jesus doesn't return until after the "man of sin", I believe the KJV refers to him as "that Wicked", is already sitting in the temple of God, claiming himself to be God.

Naturally, if Jesus does not return until after the man of sin (we typically call him The Antichrist) is already in the temple claiming to be God and the church is not gathered until Jesus returns then it's very easy logic to conclude that Jesus returns to end the great tribulation and rapture the church. The rapture is post-trib.
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You think it's just 2 Thessalonians 2 that pre-tribs rely on?

God has a pattern of explaining the warning of those experiencing His Great Wrath and it's NEVER for His true believers. But if you want to go through the Great Tribulation go right ahead. Most likely I will explain it to you on the way up, when he spares His Children.

Colossians 3:5-6 Therefore put to death your members which are on the earth: fornication, uncleanness, passion, evil desire, and covetousness, which is idolatry. For it is because of these things that the wrath of God is coming upon the sons of disobedience

Romans 1:18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who suppress the truth in unrighteousness

Romans 2:5 But in accordance with your hardness and your impenitent heart you are treasuring up for yourself wrath in the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God

Romans 13:4 For he is God’s minister to you for good. But if you do evil, be afraid; for he does not bear the sword in vain; for he is God’s minister, an avenger to execute wrath on him who practices evil.

1 Thessalonians 5:9 For God did not appoint us to wrath, but to obtain salvation through our Lord Jesus Christ.

I can post more examples if you like that shows that Wrath of God is for the ungodly....and not for His True Believers.
 
AandW

AandW

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rayzor said:
i think if it bring u closer to god then it's inspired.
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The [Sole Reason] it is false from the Mormon point of View, is that if just ONE VERSE of their Bible is Inspired, then ALL of it is Inspired. And the CLAIM from their Bible, "that Jesus and Satan are Brothers, both Sons of God, " [can Never] be considered Inspired!

So that Verse Alone and many other made up/man made idealism's found throughout their MYTHICAL Fairy-Tale/bible, make it ALL 100% Bunk/Skunk/Non Inspired Junk!
 
ewq1938

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rayzor said:
rev 3:10
Because u have kept the word of
patience.I will also will keep u from
the hour of temptation.
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Rev 3:10 Because thou hast kept the word of my patience, I also will keep thee from the hour of temptation, which shall come upon all the world, to try them that dwell upon the earth.

1 Corinthians 10:13 There hath no temptation taken you but such as is common to man: but God is faithful, who will not suffer you to be tempted above that ye are able; but will with the temptation also make a way to escape, that ye may be able to BEAR it.

One can escape temptation by being able to bear it. It is not a physical escape but a mental one.


Rev 3:10 Because thou hast kept the word of my patience, I also will keep thee from the hour of temptation, which shall come upon all the world, to try them that dwell upon the earth.

Another thing that pre-tribs stumble over is that Revelation 3:10's, "keep thee from" which is the Greek "tereo ge ek".
"tereo ek" is only found in one other place in the bible and the context means to be kept from something while remaining present until it ends. This is true of examples of plagues, wrath, and tribulation where people were there and lived through those events and weren't removed from the Earth to escape them.
 
ewq1938

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None of those verses are related to rapture. The great tribulation is not the wrath God. It's the wrath of Satan against Christians/the church.



AnnG said:
You think it's just 2 Thessalonians 2 that pre-tribs rely on?

God has a pattern of explaining the warning of those experiencing His Great Wrath and it's NEVER for His true believers. But if you want to go through the Great Tribulation go right ahead. Most likely I will explain it to you on the way up, when he spares His Children.

Colossians 3:5-6 Therefore put to death your members which are on the earth: fornication, uncleanness, passion, evil desire, and covetousness, which is idolatry. For it is because of these things that the wrath of God is coming upon the sons of disobedience

Romans 1:18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who suppress the truth in unrighteousness

Romans 2:5 But in accordance with your hardness and your impenitent heart you are treasuring up for yourself wrath in the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God

Romans 13:4 For he is God’s minister to you for good. But if you do evil, be afraid; for he does not bear the sword in vain; for he is God’s minister, an avenger to execute wrath on him who practices evil.

1 Thessalonians 5:9 For God did not appoint us to wrath, but to obtain salvation through our Lord Jesus Christ.

I can post more examples if you like that shows that Wrath of God is for the ungodly....and not for His True Believers.
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R

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AnnG said:
You think it's just 2 Thessalonians 2 that pre-tribs rely on?

God has a pattern of explaining the warning of those experiencing His Great Wrath and it's NEVER for His true believers. But if you want to go through the Great Tribulation go right ahead. Most likely I will explain it to you on the way up, when he spares His Children.

Colossians 3:5-6 Therefore put to death your members which are on the earth: fornication, uncleanness, passion, evil desire, and covetousness, which is idolatry. For it is because of these things that the wrath of God is coming upon the sons of disobedience

Romans 1:18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who suppress the truth in unrighteousness

Romans 2:5 But in accordance with your hardness and your impenitent heart you are treasuring up for yourself wrath in the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God

Romans 13:4 For he is God’s minister to you for good. But if you do evil, be afraid; for he does not bear the sword in vain; for he is God’s minister, an avenger to execute wrath on him who practices evil.

1 Thessalonians 5:9 For God did not appoint us to wrath, but to obtain salvation through our Lord Jesus Christ.

I can post more examples if you like that shows that Wrath of God is for the ungodly....and not for His True Believers.
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The cart is in front of the horse. God's wrath is not poured out on the church, absolutely correct. However, God's wrath does not occur until after the great tribulation, when the church has already been removed.

Matthew 24 is a great example for this. Jesus returns to gather His elect immediately after the tribulation and then those who are left on the earth experience an event like a flood in the days of Noah. Not a literal waterflood, but rather a global catastrophe of Biblical proportions.

Furthermore, there are Christians in the great tribulation known as the two witnesses and the tribulation saints. Your theory contradicts the verses you posted since that would have members of the church experiencing God's wrath.

Did you know the great tribulation is not God's wrath? The antagonists of the great tribulation are the devil, beast, and false prophet; these persons are not acting on behalf of God.
 
Blade

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Lol no one asked but another reason I do not debate any more is so much is said as fact not "this is what I believe and why". They only post one side not all. We read in posts how some words are defined in the Hebrew and Greek amen praise God. Yet even there they do not agree right. Take "fallen away" if we go way back it was written in some bibles as "departure" today most have "fallen away". A key word "first". That had not happen so the Thessalonians could still expect caught up aka Rapture.

Is "apostasy" meaning "fallen away" to mean religious.. a great abandonment of spiritual religion or a rebellion against truth and justice, a defiance of Gods authority among the nations? Does anyone know understand Greek and hmm say anything different? Many do Dr E Schuler suggests another possibility the the word apostasia has a secondary meaning of "taken away" and might point to the rapture of the Church. There is so much more.. word study here to go into. See one main reason I like my books on Greek for one is it gives both sides not just one. Yet we that can't read greek or ancient greek can tend to only share those that agree with what we believe. I can't. This has nothing to do with how I personally believe. I must right here when reading "fallen away' "apostasia" understand it can mean fallen away but it can also mean taken away. pfft...

I'll share this.... short "This last great revolt against God will have its origin in that part of the world that is called active and aggressive hatred of all Christianity, and it will culminate in anti-Christian persecution (Matt 24:9, Rev 13:15) But this universal revolt against God will have its root within the nominal Christian Church. It is when the salt loses its power and the light becomes darkness that cruelty is given unlimited power in the world (Matt 5:13).

In passing it may be mentioned that some scholars have suggested that the word apostasia can be translated "snatching away". Liddell and Scott give a secondary meaning of the word as "departure, disappearance" (LSJ, "apostasia"). If this were the correct translation it could mean the rapture of the Church. However, there is not strong support for this view. "

So sure we can say "it only defined as mean fallen away". True yet.. not. Oh was it ok if I didn't capitalize then in bold any words? :D See if that blade is sharp? It cuts real easy no need to force it. Wait.. I think mine is doubled sided! Just kidding.
 
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TheDivineWatermark

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Blade said:
Liddell and Scott give a secondary meaning of the word as "departure, disappearance" (LSJ, "apostasia").
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Right.

In my hard copy (I forget ATM which year/edition it is, but it's one of the older ones [late 1800s, I think]), it says under "apostasia - later form for apostasis" and then under that word (apostasis) has: "2. departure or removal from." (--Liddell and Scott Greek-English Lexicon)
 
R

Runningman

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Blade said:
Lol no one asked but another reason I do not debate any more is so much is said as fact not "this is what I believe and why". They only post one side not all. We read in posts how some words are defined in the Hebrew and Greek amen praise God. Yet even there they do not agree right. Take "fallen away" if we go way back it was written in some bibles as "departure" today most have "fallen away". A key word "first". That had not happen so the Thessalonians could still expect caught up aka Rapture.

Is "apostasy" meaning "fallen away" to mean religious.. a great abandonment of spiritual religion or a rebellion against truth and justice, a defiance of Gods authority among the nations? Does anyone know understand Greek and hmm say anything different? Many do Dr E Schuler suggests another possibility the the word apostasia has a secondary meaning of "taken away" and might point to the rapture of the Church. There is so much more.. word study here to go into. See one main reason I like my books on Greek for one is it gives both sides not just one. Yet we that can't read greek or ancient greek can tend to only share those that agree with what we believe. I can't. This has nothing to do with how I personally believe. I must right here when reading "fallen away' "apostasia" understand it can mean fallen away but it can also mean taken away. pfft...

I'll share this.... short "This last great revolt against God will have its origin in that part of the world that is called active and aggressive hatred of all Christianity, and it will culminate in anti-Christian persecution (Matt 24:9, Rev 13:15) But this universal revolt against God will have its root within the nominal Christian Church. It is when the salt loses its power and the light becomes darkness that cruelty is given unlimited power in the world (Matt 5:13).

In passing it may be mentioned that some scholars have suggested that the word apostasia can be translated "snatching away". Liddell and Scott give a secondary meaning of the word as "departure, disappearance" (LSJ, "apostasia"). If this were the correct translation it could mean the rapture of the Church. However, there is not strong support for this view. "

So sure we can say "it only defined as mean fallen away". True yet.. not. Oh was it ok if I didn't capitalize then in bold any words? :D See if that blade is sharp? It cuts real easy no need to force it. Wait.. I think mine is doubled sided! Just kidding.
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Let's look at that. If apostasia means departure then the departure doesn't come until "the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him." Right?

But how does the departure [of the church] in a gathering to Jesus Christ at His coming mesh into the context of 2 Thessalonians 2?

"that day shall not come, except there come a falling away [departure of the church] first." Still sound good?

That's where the problems begin for pre-trib since, according to verse 8, "And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming."

The Lord Jesus Christ destroys "that Wicked" when He comes. That means the "man of sin" or "that Wicked", AKA the anti-Christ person, is already present and active by the time Jesus returns to gather the church in a departure.

As I'm sure you're aware, the anti-Christ is a main protagonist in the great tribulation. This means that Jesus returns to end the great tribulation by destroying the anti-Christ.

According to the overall context of 2 Thess. 2, there can't be a pre-trib departure of the church since it places the return of Jesus at some point in the great tribulation, not before the great tribulation.

Making apostasia mean a departure of the church introduces contradictions in the chapter and the rest of the Bible. I speculate this is why most modern Bibles have abandoned the usage of departure in favor of falling away.
 
ewq1938

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TheDivineWatermark said:
Right.

In my hard copy (I forget ATM which year/edition it is, but it's one of the older ones [late 1800s, I think]), it says under "apostasia - later form for apostasis" and then under that word (apostasis) has: "2. departure or removal from." (--Liddell and Scott Greek-English Lexicon)
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That is false information.

From Liddell and Scott:

A defection, revolt, v.l. in D.H.7.1, J.Vit.10, Plu.Galb.1; esp. in religious sense, rebellion against God, apostasy, LXX Jo.22.22, 2 Ep.Th.2.3.


They specifically cite 2Th 2:3 as being a defection "in religious sense, rebellion against God".



2Th 2:3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away (apostasia) first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;



http://perseus.uchicago.edu/cgi-bin/philologic/getobject.pl?c.7:10:15.LSJ.1873894


A defection, revolt, v.l. in D.H.7.1, J.Vit.10, Plu.Galb.1; esp. in religious sense, rebellion against God, apostasy, LXX Jo.22.22, 2 Ep.Th.2.3.
2 departure, disappearance, Olymp. in Mete.320.2.
3 distinguishing, c. gen., Elias in Cat.119.7.
4 distance, Archim.Aren.1.5.

2Th 2:3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;

According to Liddell and Scott Greek, the word "apostasia" in 2Th 2:3 means, "revolt" especially "in religious sense, rebellion against God".

A second link is here:

http://stephanus.tlg.uci.edu/lsj/#eid=14158&context=lsj

apostasia


They only cite, "2 departure, disappearance, Olymp. in Mete.320.2. " from a non-biblical reference. It is dishonest to claim they say the bible uses the word in this sense because it does not. It is also dishonest to deny that they directly say the word means "revolt" especially "in religious sense, rebellion against God" in that verse.
 
Nehemiah6

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Runningman said:
That's where the problems begin for pre-trib since, according to verse 8, "And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming."
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You have failed to see that "the brightness of His coming" relates to the the Second Coming of Christ WITH His saints and angels (see Revelation 19 and related passages). Now the question you have failed to ask yourself is "How could Christ come WITH His saints unless He had first come FOR His saints, and unless the Marriage of the Lamb had already been completed?" And that leads right back to the Pre-Tribulation Resurrection/Rapture which occurs at least seven years before the Second Coming.

The Pre-Tribulation Rapture is a divine necessity for several reasons, not least of which is the fact that when Christ comes at the end of the Great Tribulation, He comes WITH His saints from Heaven. Revelation 1:7 speaks of "clouds" which are a metaphor for the multitudes of saints and angels surrounding Christ at His coming to earth. They are all arrayed in white and radiating light, therefore they give the appearance of clouds through which light is shining.
 
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eternally-gratefull

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Aaron56 said:
Oh yes.

Dispensationalism seems useful for feeding small children small bites, but it really acts like horse blinders by limiting one's view of the scriptures. It's one of the reasons, I believe, that those who embrace dispensationalism tend to embrace the 10 Commandments as a guide for our lives: it's an easy to understand, black and white behavioral plan for Christians. They are legally harsh, religious people without any understanding of God's character.
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Thats funny, No dispensational person I know of sees the ten commands as guid for our lives (not sayin they are not out there)

One should think, and at least check their facts before they post.

Dispensationalsim does not limit ones view of scripture. it opens it up

Dispensationalsim and how it works is nothing new. Take a book, Break it down into sections. Seperate different parts into different paragraphs or chapters.

and you have dispensationalism At its core.
 
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eternally-gratefull

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Lucy-Pevensie said:
I remember The Late Great Planet Earth. I knew very little about Bible prophecy then so it was easy to believe.
They had a movie & a paperback book. I have witnessed over the years that left-behinder doctrine enjoys a position of entrenched institutional bias in the western mainstream church. They've cluttered up the study of eschatology by imposing their man-made theory over scripture and there is a good deal of anger for anyone who dares to disagree.

There is even a pretribulation rapture "research centre" and they are constantly piecing together apologetics for the doctrine. They even have an annual conference! Why should one non-essential doctrine require so many resources?

"The Pre-Trib Research Center (PTRC) is committed to the study, proclamation, teaching, and defense of the pre-tribulation rapture (pre-70th week of Daniel) and related end-time prophecy."

Pretrib is a business with revenue to protect but they must have known for some years that the pretrib idea isn't sustainable. Not only is it not scripturally sound, it has no historical background in the church. A part of the research centre's function in recent years has been to construct a false historical background story for the new doctrine.
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While I am sure what you said about a group of dispensational people and this so called center.

The fact is, of all pre-millennial views. Pre trip is the most biblically sound, Which it has some issues, and even I have changed my view and am no longer a pure pre-triber. Post trib is the least biblical sound of all pre mill views. And when it comes to biblical soundness, the least biblical sound doctrine of all is the Roman Catholic view that we are in the thousand year reign of christ now. And there will be no physical kingdom.
 
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eternally-gratefull

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I did not realise this thread was so long wow

Anyway, The word rapture is in scripture. We see it in the english as “caught up” The Latin word raptura, from where we get the english word rapture. Means to be “caught up”

be it pre-trib (before daniels 7 years)
mid trib (in the middle of the week, Before Gods WRATH or the great tribulation.
or post trib, right before the true return of Christ.

You can not deny there WILL be a rapture without denying scripture.
 
ewq1938

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Nehemiah6 said:
You have failed to see that "the brightness of His coming" relates to the the Second Coming of Christ WITH His saints and angels (see Revelation 19 and related passages). Now the question you have failed to ask yourself is "How could Christ come WITH His saints unless He had first come FOR His saints
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He meets the raptured saints in clouds as He is descending in the second coming.

And that leads right back to the Pre-Tribulation Resurrection/Rapture which occurs at least seven years before the Second Coming.
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The bible places the rapture AFTER the trib has ended, two different times. Pretrib is not in tne bible at all.
 
ewq1938

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eternally-gratefull said:
While I am sure what you said about a group of dispensational people and this so called center.

The fact is, of all pre-millennial views. Pre trip is the most biblically sound, Which it has some issues, and even I have changed my view and am no longer a pure pre-triber. Post trib is the least biblical sound of all pre mill views.
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No, pretrtib is the most unsound, with zero biblical evidence. Only post-trib is found in the bible, two different places:

1Th 4:13 But I would not have you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning them which are asleep, that ye sorrow not, even as others which have no hope.
1Th 4:14 For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so them also which sleep in Jesus will God bring with him.(second coming reference)
1Th 4:15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord (second coming reference) shall not prevent them which are asleep.
1Th 4:16 For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven (second coming reference) with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first: (the resurrection of the dead in Christ)
1Th 4:17 Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord. (the rapture)

The resurrection only happens at the second coming and the second coming can only happen after the trib has ended, and since the verses tell us the rapture happens AFTER the resurrection and second coming means these verses decisively prove the rapture is post-trib not pre-trib.

It's that simple.

Christ also spoke of the rapture but used the wording of saints being gathered together, and no surprise, placed it after the end of the Great Tribulation.

Mat 24:29 Immediately after the tribulation (great tribulation has ended) of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:
Mat 24:30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming (second coming reference) in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.
Mat 24:31 And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect (*another way to speak of the Rapture) from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.

*(also see 2nd Thessalonians 2:1 for the same language regarding the Rapture)

Timing of the gathering/rapturing is exactly the same in these two passages. In both we have saved Christians being moved from one place to another and in both that happens after the tribulation has ended and when the second coming has commenced.


A rapture before the second coming and before the resurrection is scripturally impossible and the second coming cannot happen until the tribulation has ended, Mat 24:29-30.
 
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TheDivineWatermark

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In my hard copy (I forget ATM which year/edition it is, but it's one of the older ones [late 1800s, I think]), it says under "apostasia - later form for apostasis" and then under that word (apostasis) has: "2. departure or removal from." (--Liddell and Scott Greek-English Lexicon)
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ewq1938 said:
That is false information.

From Liddell and Scott:
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No it isn't false.

I see it directly on the page of my hard copy book right in front of me! (If I could take a picture of the page and post it, I would!)

My hard copy has none of the following words, which show on your post (at both of your links, apparently)... all the stuff about "Olymp. in Mete." and "Elias in Cat." and "Archim.Aren." and the stuff like that under #1 too... NONE of that kind of stuff is in my hard copy edition (1871) that I'm referring to... which DOES have the words I listed, under #2 (if you're trying to suggest that isn't true, what I had put. It IS true.)

None of that. Just straight definitions.



And at the bottom of a face page says "This present Edition... October, 1871" (very old cloth cover; revised; abridged)--with our word under discussion (both "apostasia" and "apostasis," that is) being found on page 93.

It does not look anything like what is being presented at your links, which I suspect are later editions from that of my hard copy (1871). I also have a later edition in paperback, on some shelf or other... but I wasn't referencing what's in that one.
 
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TheDivineWatermark

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Here's a LINK to it:

https://archive.org/details/lexiconabridgedf00liddrich/page/92/mode/2up


Look at the RIGHT HAND page (pg 93), far RIGHT COLUMN... just about halfway down the page, under "apostasis"... you will DEFINITELY SEE the words I posted, listed under #2, there

(as well as the other words I said are found under "apostasia" same page, a few entries above that one)

(1871)
 
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Nehemiah6 said:
You have failed to see that "the brightness of His coming" relates to the the Second Coming of Christ WITH His saints and angels (see Revelation 19 and related passages). Now the question you have failed to ask yourself is "How could Christ come WITH His saints unless He had first come FOR His saints, and unless the Marriage of the Lamb had already been completed?" And that leads right back to the Pre-Tribulation Resurrection/Rapture which occurs at least seven years before the Second Coming.
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Check 1 Thessalonians 1:14 for the answer.

14For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so them also which sleep in Jesus will God bring with him.

God brings with Jesus those who are asleep in Jesus. These are deceased members of the church. The living and breathing church members on the ground haven't been gathered yet.


The Pre-Tribulation Rapture is a divine necessity for several reasons, not least of which is the fact that when Christ comes at the end of the Great Tribulation, He comes WITH His saints from Heaven. Revelation 1:7 speaks of "clouds" which are a metaphor for the multitudes of saints and angels surrounding Christ at His coming to earth. They are all arrayed in white and radiating light, therefore they give the appearance of clouds through which light is shining.
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Yes, Jesus comes with His saints from heaven, but that doesn't include the living and breathing saints on the ground who went through the great tribulation.

Pre-trib rapture excludes tribulation saints.
 
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To add to my last two posts, again a quote from K.Wuest's long article I put in another thread:

[quoting Wuest]

"The writer is well aware of the fact that apostasia was used at times both in classical and koine Greek in the sense of a defection, a revolt in a religious sense, a rebellion against God, and of the act of apostasy. Liddell and Scott in their classical lexicon give the above as the first definition of the word. Moulton and Milligan quote a papyrus fragment where the word means "a rebel." But these are acquired meanings of the word gotten from the context in which it is used, not the original, basic, literal meaning, and should not be imposed upon the word when the context does not qualify the word by these meanings, as in the case of our Thessalonians passage, where the context in which apostasia is embedded does not refer to a defection from the truth but to the rapture of the church. The fact that our word "apostasy" means a defection from the truth is entirely beside the point since we do not interpret Scripture upon the basis of a transliterated word to which a certain meaning has been given, but upon the basis of what the Greek word mean to the first century reader. The fact that Paul in 1 Timothy 4:1 uses this verb in the words "some shall depart from the faith" and finds it necessary to qualify its meaning by the phrase "from the faith" indicates that the word itself has no such connotation. The translators of the Authorized Version did not translate the word, but offered their interpretation of it. They should have translated it and allowed the student to interpret it in its context. "

[end quoting from K.Wuest's long article; bold mine]



Post #258 - https://christianchat.com/threads/documentary—7-pretrib-problems-and-the-prewrath-rapture.200942/post-4637984
 
T

TheDivineWatermark

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Aug 3, 2018
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#460
So, where he says,

But these are acquired meanings of the word gotten from the context in which it is used, not the original, basic, literal meaning, and should not be imposed upon the word when the context does not qualify the word by these meanings
Click to expand...
... an example would be, if we were to insist the word always carries the meaning: "a departure FROM MOSES"... No. The word itself simply means "departure"... the ADDED words of THAT context (the surrounding words) tell us "WHAT KIND" of departure is meant... i.e. "FROM MOSES" in *that* context, Acts 21:21 (but not in EVERY context where the word is found).

CONTEXT determines just "WHAT KIND" of "departure" is meant (and in our text under discussion, it is "THE departure"... and the definite article ['the'] serves particular FUNCTIONS)
 
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