What is Biblical marriage?

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Amanuensis

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Except the whole concept of marriage began in the garden of Eden. When there weren't any Jews around.


You're not going back FAR ENOUGH in history.
Leaving Father and Mother and cleaving to the wife is a concise statement that suggest a public vow and probably included full participation of the family with contracts, witnesses (the parents) and celebration from the beginning. History suggests that it did.
 

Amanuensis

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Like I said, "or something like that". But I AM aware that some states will consider a couple married if they have been together for 7 years. Maybe not all states have the same rules.
They will consider them married if they request and fill out the forms for common law, but not if they don't. No one is going to automatically enter you into any state records as married unless you request it. That is why when you break up with a girl who you lived with for 7 years and she claims common law marriage and tries to claim alimony the lawyers won't take it because it does not work that way, and yet the myth is still alive even in the age of Google.
 

ewq1938

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Again, I am suggesting that you are not understanding the implications of, He shall leave his father and mother and cleave to his wife. You see it as a sex act.
I see it as a marriage, which it is.

There was certainly a discussion and agreements and witnesses and celebration.
I'm sure that happened often but the concept of eloping is also something that would have happened.


From the beginning.
Nope. Adam and Eve became one flesh and they were married. There was no discussion with others or paperwork or even a wedding. All those things are extras which are not required by God.
 

iamsoandso

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It has been a curiosity to me for a long time as to why there are no specific directions for how to get married in the Bible. Marriage permeates our daily life and the fabric of our cultures and society yet the Bible is curiously silent on the topic.

Marriages are mentioned in the Bible, but are there any examples of vows, ceremony, documents, etc. Why?

Today I had a thought about this verse:

Matthew 5:28
28But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.

So if a man or woman looks at someone to lust after them then they have committed adultery with them in their heart.

By process of reverse engineering Matt. 5:28, the implication is that if adultery occurs in the heart then marriage occurs in the heart, too.

Does this explain why there is no clearcut criteria for marriage in the Bible? We just need to look a little deeper and read between the lines a bit.

I believe that it seems logical to me that true marriage occurs in the heart. A document and ceremony doesn't validate a marriage. As we know there are plenty of loveless sham marriages.

So what are your thoughts/opinions/debates/rebukes/etc? Thank you for taking the time to read this.

I suggest Matthew chapter 1 https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew 1&version=KJV the reason is that Joseph was going to put her away privately(verse 19) and then in verse 25(he had not yet known her)... So he(Joseph) considered himself married to Mary(he was going to put her away privly/letter of divorce) but had not yet known her(verse 25) and so the marriage was considered valid before he had known her. It was valid because Mary and Joseph agreed and because their fathers(or head of house) agreed on it(see other Scriptures,,,Abraham sending his servant to find Isaac an wife ect. and the agreements made by both fathers).
 

ewq1938

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Leaving Father and Mother and cleaving to the wife is a concise statement that suggest a public vow and probably included full participation of the family with contracts, witnesses (the parents) and celebration from the beginning.

None of that is in any sense part of "leaving Father and Mother and cleaving to the wife".
 

Amanuensis

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None of that is in any sense part of "leaving Father and Mother and cleaving to the wife".
If you say so. I imagine it as a family discussion at the very least. You imagine something else.
 

ewq1938

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I suggest Matthew chapter 1 https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew 1&version=KJV the reason is that Joseph was going to put her away privately(verse 19) and then in verse 25(he had not yet known her)... So he(Joseph) considered himself married to Mary(he was going to put her away privly/letter of divorce)

No marriage means no divorce is needed. "putting her away" simply means to break up with her and cancel any possible marriage.

Mat 1:18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.

espoused
G3423
μνηστεύω
mnēsteuō
mnace-tyoo'-o
From a derivative of G3415; to give a souvenir (engagement present), that is, betroth: - espouse.
Total KJV occurrences: 3



This would be what we call an engagement, ie: a fiance' not a wife.
 

Amanuensis

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I suggest Matthew chapter 1 https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew 1&version=KJV the reason is that Joseph was going to put her away privately(verse 19) and then in verse 25(he had not yet known her)... So he(Joseph) considered himself married to Mary(he was going to put her away privly/letter of divorce) but had not yet known her(verse 25) and so the marriage was considered valid before he had known her. It was valid because Mary and Joseph agreed and because their fathers(or head of house) agreed on it(see other Scriptures,,,Abraham sending his servant to find Isaac an wife ect. and the agreements made by both fathers).
Yes, these and many other details are in the scriptures about biblical marriages.
 

Amanuensis

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No marriage means no divorce is needed. "putting her away" simply means to break up with her and cancel any possible marriage.

Mat 1:18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.

espoused
G3423
μνηστεύω
mnēsteuō
mnace-tyoo'-o
From a derivative of G3415; to give a souvenir (engagement present), that is, betroth: - espouse.
Total KJV occurrences: 3



This would be what we call an engagement, ie: a fiance' not a wife.
No, it required documented writing. You just have not read enough on this yet. Or you are being belligerent.
 

iamsoandso

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No marriage means no divorce is needed. "putting her away" simply means to break up with her and cancel any possible marriage.

Mat 1:18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.

espoused
G3423
μνηστεύω
mnēsteuō
mnace-tyoo'-o
From a derivative of G3415; to give a souvenir (engagement present), that is, betroth: - espouse.
Total KJV occurrences: 3



This would be what we call an engagement, ie: a fiance' not a wife.

See verse 20 the angel of the Lord told Joseph not to fear taking Mary thy wife...
 

ewq1938

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No, it required documented writing. You just have not read enough on this yet. Or you are being belligerent.
So you have declined into childish Ad Hominems now? That means you lost the debate.
 

ewq1938

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See verse 20 the angel of the Lord told Joseph not to fear taking Mary thy wife...

The word simply means a woman of various types. In this case Mary is the woman he is engaged to. They are not yet married.
 

Amanuensis

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So you have declined into childish Ad Hominems now? That means you lost the debate.
Are we debating? If so then you must answer the question, Did you know that the rules of ending an engagement in 1st Century Jewish Culture required certain rules and included a writing similar to a writing of divorce?

If you did not know this then this is nothing to be ashamed of, we all had to read about it before we learned it. You can Google it if you have questions. Once you read about what Joseph would need to do to "put her away" and then if you were to then insist that Joseph did not need to do anything but break up and not go through with the wedding, then you would be being belligerent.

As in willfully rejecting facts about the 1st Century Jewish rules about breaking up an engagement and pretending that you have not just learned them and sticking to your own ideas that have been proven wrong. At which point the debate is over because you don't know how to abide by debate rules.
 

Nehemiah6

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Nope. Adam and Eve became one flesh and they were married. There was no discussion with others or paperwork or even a wedding. All those things are extras which are not required by God.
This is just naive and foolish talk. The Bible says Give none offence, neither to the Jews, nor to the Gentiles, nor to the church of God (1 Cor 10:32)

A Christian would be giving offence to a lot of people by ignoring the customs and conditions required for a marriage to be recognized by both God and man.
 

Amanuensis

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She was not his wife. She was his fiance'.
LOL. That is French for "He's taken" at least that is the way my old girl friend used to use it. Everytime I talked to another female, she was suddenly by my side saying "hello I'm his Fiance"
 

Amanuensis

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She was not his wife. She was his fiance'.
Betrothal and the Wedding
Until late in the Middle Ages, marriage consisted of two ceremonies that were marked by celebrations at two separate times, with an interval between. First came the betrothal [erusin]; and later, the wedding [nissuin]. At the betrothal the woman was legally married, although she still remained in her father’s house. She could not belong to another man unless she was divorced from her betrothed. The wedding meant only that the betrothed woman, accompanied by a colorful procession, was brought from her father’s house to the house of her groom, and the legal tie with him was consummated.

This division of marriage into two separate events originated in very ancient times when marriage was a purchase, both in its outward form and in its inner meaning. Woman was not recognized as a person but was bought in marriage, like chattel.

Marriage, as with any type of purchase, consisted of two acts. First the price was paid and an agreement reached on the conditions of sale. Sometime later the purchaser took possession of the object. In marriage, the mohar was paid and a detailed agreement reached between the families of the bride and groom. This betrothal was followed by the wedding, when the bride was brought into the home of the groom, who took actual possession of her.

In those days the betrothal was the more important of these two events and maintained its importance as long as marriage was actually based upon a purchase. But as women assumed more importance as individuals, and marriage ceased to be a purchase, attaining moral significance, the actual wedding became more important than the betrothal.