You need both water baptism and the Holy Ghost/Holy Spirit.

Water Baptism is neither a "work" nor a "gift".
It is a "Ritual" and, therefore, SYMBOLIC.

You are stretching that one....and by transference...only.

Doesn't fit.

Water baptism, since its establishment by John the Baptist

What does Mark 1:4 say baptism is for?

Love in Jesus,
Kelby

“You do not know what you are asking,” Jesus replied. “Can you drink the cup
I will drink, or be baptized with the baptism I will undergo?” “We can,” the
brothers answered. “You will drink the cup that I drink,” Jesus said, “and
you will be baptized with the baptism that I undergo."

I do not believe the baptism Jesus was alluding to was water baptism.

Look at this, please:

John the Baptist was with two of his disciples when he saw Jesus walking nearby.
John said, “Look, the Lamb of God, Who takes away the sin of the world!” The two
disciples who were with John and heard John the Baptist say this then followed Jesus.

Andrew, as one of those two disciples of John the Baptist, had surely already been
water baptized. He was the first to follow Jesus, with an un-named other, probably Phillip.

So why would Jesus tell them they would undergo the same baptism? Since they had already
been water baptized. Scripture further affirms this: The whole Judean countryside and all the
people of Jerusalem went out to him. Confessing their sins, they were baptized by him in the Jordan River.

Ephesians 4:5-6

When it comes to ministering to MAN, not all will have diversities of tongues (speaking in multiple earthly languages by the spirit) nor will all have interpretations of tongues (interpreting the "unknown' tongues ((babbly talk / stammering lips)) into English). Because that's what type of ministering Paul is addressing in 1 Corinthians 12. He makes that clear in verse 7:

speaking in tongues (the unknown / babbly kind) isn't intended to be used to benefit the whole (unless God has it interpreted). It is not being spoken to man. It is unto GOD.(1 Cor. 14:2) And is the SPIRIT praying, not the understanding. (1 Cor 14:14) And God requires that those who worship HIM must worship him in SPIRIT as well as in their natural understanding. (John 4:23-24)

render unto man what is appointed for use unto MAN... and unto God that which is appointed for use unto GOD.

Love in Jesus, (and great question, BTW)
Kelby

John the Baptist, is not related to the Cross of Christ.
John The Baptist, was dunking Old Testament, Jews.

Now that Jesus is come and died and is resurrected, ... we have a NEW TESTAMENT and we preach the GOSPEL, not the WATER.

Paul says that Jesus/God sent him to "preach the GOSPEL"......not the water.

"water cults" preach : Water Baptism

Christian's Preach "Christ Crucified"

Be sure you figure this out., asap.

Jesus (as far as I understand) was talking about the baptism of death in that passage. Jesus was going to go down into death and come back up again (pass through death) on his way to "rest". I think he was telling them they, too, would suffer death on their path to "rest" in God.

Love in Jesus,
Kelby

If I can unravel what I hear you saying, it sounds like you believe Paul's talking about known, human languages in 1 Corinthians 12:30. But the so-called heavenly language is for everyone. Is that correct?

If so, where is the scripture you base this on?

To prepare people for the coming Messiah!

That's what you (and probably your church doctrine) says. But what does Mark 1:4 say John was baptizing for? Go ahead and post the verse for us, please, so we can see what it really says.

Love in Jesus,
Kelby

Thank you, Kelby, and this is true, however, the death we undergo in being born again
via the Holy Spirit of God is the death of the natural man with the circumcision of our
heart that quickens us, making it possible for us to believe, for the natural man cannot.

But when the kindness of God our Savior and His love for mankind appeared,
He saved us, not by the righteous deeds we had done, but according to His mercy,
through the washing of new birth and renewal by the Holy Spirit. Titus 3:4-5

It is this faith in His shed righteous blood that pleases God, and
also attains/secures for us the promise as heirs of life everlasting.

This is the Spirit He poured out on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Savior, so that,
having been justified by His grace, we would become heirs with the hope of eternal life.

And yet Paul said that he was not sent to baptize but to preach the Gospel. If baptism were essential for salvation, he could never have said that. He would have said "I was sent to preach the Gospel and also to baptize".

Note: baptism is essential for sanctification, not for justification. People should learn the difference.

Acts 2:38,39 Acts 2:4 (they ALL were filled with the Holy Ghost and began to speak with other tongues), Acts 10:44-46 (they all started speaking in tongues), Acts 19:6-7 (they all got it). Acts 8:12-17 (because the holy ghost comes at a specific moment not tied to moment of belief OR baptism and can be witnessed by those around, like Simon the sorcerer)

If Paul was SENT to baptize, he would be required to baptize those God sent him to. As it stands, Paul knew there were others who could perform that duty just as well as he. So he was under no obligation to sacrifice his more specific duties just to perform what could be done by others.

All these examples you've given are descriptive of groups of people who all received the gift of tongues, but I don't see anything in the way of prescriptive teaching that teaches tongues is for all believers in all ages.

But Acts 2:39 and every instance of "I indeed baptize with water, but YE (all believers) SHALL be baptized with the Holy Ghost" is the statement that tells us it is for ALL that the Lord our God shall call.

Love in Jesus,
Kelby