This was my original question: << What is the correct biblical definition of the wrath of God, and how does it differentiate from the love of God since both attributes proceed from the same God (Father, Son, and Spirit)? Is there a contradiction? >>
So, we (sort of) understand what God's wrath is, but how do we define God's love recognizing that both His wrath and His love (agape) proceed from the same person?
I've always looked at it in this simple manner:
I Peter chapter 1
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17] And if ye call on the Father, who without respect of persons judgeth according to every man's work, pass the time of your sojourning here in fear:
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18] Forasmuch as ye know that ye were not redeemed with corruptible things, as silver and gold, from your vain conversation received by tradition from your fathers;
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19] But with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot:
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20] Who verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you,
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21] Who by him do believe in God, that raised him up from the dead, and gave him glory; that your faith and hope might be in God.
God will ultimately judge us all (he's actually committed all judgment unto Jesus - John 5:22) without respect of persons or impartially, and, even though multitudes of professing Christians don't believe this, it will be in accordance to every man's work.
Seeing how God is an impartial and righteous judge, I love him for this reason.
However, at the same time, I fear him for this reason because I wouldn't want to come out on the wrong end of his impartial and righteous judgments.
For me, there's no contradiction whatsoever.
Hebrews chapter 1
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8] But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom.
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9]
Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.
Righteousness begets God's love.
Iniquity begets God's wrath.
It's not complicated at all.