The Error of KJV-Onlyism
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What is not logical about your belief is that if you don’t have a perfect Bible to trust, then you sit in the seat of God or the Modern scholar does and you or they determine what God says (Being an authority over God). But this is not duplicatable. James White does not agree with Dan Wallace. No Textual Critic Christian today agrees with another on what the words of God even say.
However, God’s Word tells us that Christians are to speak the same thing (1 Corinthians 1:10). This can only be if there is one Word of God that we can all agree upon. So your belief is contrary to Scripture.
However, God’s Word tells us that Christians are to speak the same thing (1 Corinthians 1:10). This can only be if there is one Word of God that we can all agree upon. So your belief is contrary to Scripture.
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If you call the KJB as Scripture then it is given by inspiration of God because 2 Timothy 3:16 says ALL Scripture is given by inspiration of God. If you don’t believe the KJB is Scripture (Which would naturally be inspired - 2 Tim 3:16), then you must claim or believe that you don’t have the Scriptures.
All Scripture is given by inspiration of God (2 Timothy 3:16).
All Scripture is given by inspiration of God (2 Timothy 3:16).
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It is GIVEN by inspiration. It is authored or created by an act of the Spirit. He is the source of the material and it is newly spoken forth.
Translators may or may not be inspired. If the source of the material is the Spirit and it is newly created, it is inspired. If it doesn't involve the revelation of newly created material or revelation, no further inspiration is necessary. It was inspired in its original.
In other words, scripture is GIVEN by inspiration as it is originally spoken forth. But it is not said to be MAINTAINED or PRESERVED by inspiration. This doesn't preclude it from being preserved, nor does it call into question its infallibility, especially since its source is infallible.
Translators may or may not be inspired. If the source of the material is the Spirit and it is newly created, it is inspired. If it doesn't involve the revelation of newly created material or revelation, no further inspiration is necessary. It was inspired in its original.
In other words, scripture is GIVEN by inspiration as it is originally spoken forth. But it is not said to be MAINTAINED or PRESERVED by inspiration. This doesn't preclude it from being preserved, nor does it call into question its infallibility, especially since its source is infallible.
Days of unleavened bread begin after Passover, when peter was apprehended acts 12:3 says " (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)" so Passover had already passed
Herod put peter in jail until after Easter, presumably so he could celebrate Easter as he was an edomite
But Passover had already finished so Easter is the correct translation, Passover in that verse would not make sense
Herod put peter in jail until after Easter, presumably so he could celebrate Easter as he was an edomite
But Passover had already finished so Easter is the correct translation, Passover in that verse would not make sense
My belief is after the fall both men and women continued doing badly which has nothing to do with any of the modern translation and I don't read any of the modern translations. I have always used the KJV
But, the belief that the KJV is literally and absolutely perfect... is a fantasy!
This is why we need to dig in to the original greek and hebrew because... God did not deliver the scriptures to mankind in English.
If it was literally perfect they would not have had several updates to the KJV
But, the belief that the KJV is literally and absolutely perfect... is a fantasy!
This is why we need to dig in to the original greek and hebrew because... God did not deliver the scriptures to mankind in English.
If it was literally perfect they would not have had several updates to the KJV
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Come on folks. Most of your Modern Bibles do not have personal pronouns in them. So you don’t know when a single person is being spoken of at times, and or when two or more people are being referred to (When it uses the word “you” in your Modern Bible). This again shows the superiority of the King James Bible. You cannot find any other group of scholars that had gathered together to do a Bible translation that would be on the same level as those who translated the KJB. This again, shows the superiority of the King James Bible. Even unbelievers speak words from the KJB by the many idioms that it popularized. This again shows the superiority of the King James Bible. The translation was not motivated by a copyright (i.e., money) unlike Modern Bibles. This again shows the superiority of the King James Bible.
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Did you read what i wrote, seams like you didn't read any of it, Passover had already passed, it was herod that was celebrating easter, its the only word that fits, But listen if you are in the days of unleavened bread Passover has already passed, he cant put him in jail until after Passover unless he keeps peter in jail for a whole year
The WORD they were translating was.... passover!
Instead of translating it correctly, they used the pagan world easter which is not even remotely related to passover.
The KJV translators were not anointed or inspired by the Holy Ghost when they did this.
If they had been, they would have translated the wortd to say passover and not easter.
Acts 12:3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)
Passover has finished!, using the word Passover would be an error, Herod was a pagan celebrating a pagan festival, it is describing things properly, a pagan celebrating a pagan holiday then killing disciples its describing pagans doing pagan things
Passover has finished!, using the word Passover would be an error, Herod was a pagan celebrating a pagan festival, it is describing things properly, a pagan celebrating a pagan holiday then killing disciples its describing pagans doing pagan things
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Are you under the impression all 54 translators had some kind of brain fart when they got to the verse? They knew it was Passover, however, something had changed. The NT word is Easter signifying the fulfillment of the Passover and Christ, being the Passover Lamb. The Jews were gathering for the Passover (OT) because they did not believe that Christ was the Messiah. Herod did not want to cause an uproar by killing Peter during the this time.
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Why does King James Bible Acts 12:4 say "Easter"?
Acts 12:4
And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after easter to bring him forth to the people.
meta to pascha means "after Passover", but the same term, Pascha, is used for Easter in most languages. English and German are peculiar in calling it Easter (or in German, Ostern) rather than using a term derived from Pesach (Hebrew) / Pascha (Greek) for Passover.
The actual word the KJV trfanslattors translated in error to say "easter" is pascha (Strong's G3957)
of Aramaic origin (compare H6453); the Passover (the meal, the day, the festival or the special sacrifices connected with it): KJV -- Easter, Passover.
H6453 - pecach -- pronounced: peh'-sakh
from 6452; a pretermission, i.e. exemption; used only techically of the Jewish Passover (the festival or the victim): KJV -- passover (offering).
Looks like the KJV is not literally perfect after all!
Acts 12:4
And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after easter to bring him forth to the people.
meta to pascha means "after Passover", but the same term, Pascha, is used for Easter in most languages. English and German are peculiar in calling it Easter (or in German, Ostern) rather than using a term derived from Pesach (Hebrew) / Pascha (Greek) for Passover.
The actual word the KJV trfanslattors translated in error to say "easter" is pascha (Strong's G3957)
of Aramaic origin (compare H6453); the Passover (the meal, the day, the festival or the special sacrifices connected with it): KJV -- Easter, Passover.
H6453 - pecach -- pronounced: peh'-sakh
from 6452; a pretermission, i.e. exemption; used only techically of the Jewish Passover (the festival or the victim): KJV -- passover (offering).
Looks like the KJV is not literally perfect after all!
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Furthermore,
In the Gospel of John there is already a distinction being made between the Christian paska and the Jewish paska. One of the words for Passover in modern Greek is paska (Passover of the Jews). We see this same phrase already in the time of John the Apostle:
John 2:13: And the Jews' passover was at hand.
John 11:55: And the Jews' passover was nigh at hand.
The fact that John writes, "Jews Pascha" indicates that there was a need to qualify the word Pascha for the immediate audience of John's Gospel. Such a phrase would be redundant unless there were already a distinction between a Jew's Pascha and another Pascha. Apparently within the first century, Christians had already appropriated the word Pascha to refer to the Christian celebration of the resurrection.
Tyndale also translated several N.T. passages as "the Easterlamb" instead of "the Passover lamb". Clearly he was not referring to some mythical pagan goddess called Ishtar or Eostre.
The KJV perfectly translated the NT pascha and placed "Easter" in the ONLY post-Resurrection reference in the New Testament.
In the Gospel of John there is already a distinction being made between the Christian paska and the Jewish paska. One of the words for Passover in modern Greek is paska (Passover of the Jews). We see this same phrase already in the time of John the Apostle:
John 2:13: And the Jews' passover was at hand.
John 11:55: And the Jews' passover was nigh at hand.
The fact that John writes, "Jews Pascha" indicates that there was a need to qualify the word Pascha for the immediate audience of John's Gospel. Such a phrase would be redundant unless there were already a distinction between a Jew's Pascha and another Pascha. Apparently within the first century, Christians had already appropriated the word Pascha to refer to the Christian celebration of the resurrection.
Tyndale also translated several N.T. passages as "the Easterlamb" instead of "the Passover lamb". Clearly he was not referring to some mythical pagan goddess called Ishtar or Eostre.
The KJV perfectly translated the NT pascha and placed "Easter" in the ONLY post-Resurrection reference in the New Testament.
Pagan originas of easter
the Easter story comes from the Sumerian legend of Damuzi (Tammuz) and his wife Inanna (Ishtar), an epic myth called “The Descent of Inanna” found inscribed on cuneiform clay tablets dating back to 2100 BC. When Tammuz dies, Ishtar is grief–stricken and follows him to the underworld. In the underworld, she enters through seven gates, and her worldly attire is removed. "Naked and bowed low" she is judged, killed, and then hung on display. In her absence, the earth loses its fertility, crops cease to grow and animals stop reproducing. Unless something is done, all life on earth will end.
After Inanna has been missing for three days her assistant goes to other gods for help. Finally one of them Enki, creates two creatures who carry the plant of life and water of life down to the Underworld, sprinkling them on Inanna and Damuzi, resurrecting them, and giving them the power to return to the earth as the light of the sun for six months. After the six months are up, Tammuz returns to the underworld of the dead, remaining there for another six months, and Ishtar pursues him, prompting the water god to rescue them both. Thus were the cycles of winter death and spring life.
The Sumerian goddess Inanna is known outside of Mesopotamia by her Babylonian name, "Ishtar". In ancient Canaan Ishtar is known as Astarte, and her counterparts in the Greek and Roman pantheons are known as Aphrodite and Venus.
the story of Inanna and Damuzi is just one of a number of accounts of dying and rising gods that represent the cycle of the seasons and the stars. For example, the resurrection of Egyptian Horus; the story of Mithras, who was worshipped at Springtime; and the tale of Dionysus, resurrected by his grandmother. Among these stories are prevailing themes of fertility, conception, renewal, descent into darkness, and the triumph of light over darkness or good over evil.
Easter as a Celebration of the Goddess of Spring
A related perspective is that, rather than being a representation of the story of Ishtar, Easter was originally a celebration of Eostre, goddess of Spring, otherwise known as Ostara, Austra, and Eastre. One of the most revered aspects of Ostara for both ancient and modern observers is a spirit of renewal.
Celebrated at Spring Equinox on March 21, Ostara marks the day when light is equal to darkness, and will continue to grow. As the bringer of light after a long dark winter, the goddess was often depicted with the hare, an animal that represents the arrival of spring as well as the fertility of the season.
the Easter story comes from the Sumerian legend of Damuzi (Tammuz) and his wife Inanna (Ishtar), an epic myth called “The Descent of Inanna” found inscribed on cuneiform clay tablets dating back to 2100 BC. When Tammuz dies, Ishtar is grief–stricken and follows him to the underworld. In the underworld, she enters through seven gates, and her worldly attire is removed. "Naked and bowed low" she is judged, killed, and then hung on display. In her absence, the earth loses its fertility, crops cease to grow and animals stop reproducing. Unless something is done, all life on earth will end.
After Inanna has been missing for three days her assistant goes to other gods for help. Finally one of them Enki, creates two creatures who carry the plant of life and water of life down to the Underworld, sprinkling them on Inanna and Damuzi, resurrecting them, and giving them the power to return to the earth as the light of the sun for six months. After the six months are up, Tammuz returns to the underworld of the dead, remaining there for another six months, and Ishtar pursues him, prompting the water god to rescue them both. Thus were the cycles of winter death and spring life.
The Sumerian goddess Inanna is known outside of Mesopotamia by her Babylonian name, "Ishtar". In ancient Canaan Ishtar is known as Astarte, and her counterparts in the Greek and Roman pantheons are known as Aphrodite and Venus.
the story of Inanna and Damuzi is just one of a number of accounts of dying and rising gods that represent the cycle of the seasons and the stars. For example, the resurrection of Egyptian Horus; the story of Mithras, who was worshipped at Springtime; and the tale of Dionysus, resurrected by his grandmother. Among these stories are prevailing themes of fertility, conception, renewal, descent into darkness, and the triumph of light over darkness or good over evil.
Easter as a Celebration of the Goddess of Spring
A related perspective is that, rather than being a representation of the story of Ishtar, Easter was originally a celebration of Eostre, goddess of Spring, otherwise known as Ostara, Austra, and Eastre. One of the most revered aspects of Ostara for both ancient and modern observers is a spirit of renewal.
Celebrated at Spring Equinox on March 21, Ostara marks the day when light is equal to darkness, and will continue to grow. As the bringer of light after a long dark winter, the goddess was often depicted with the hare, an animal that represents the arrival of spring as well as the fertility of the season.
Sounds like if you keep saying that, you can remain convinced the KJV is literally perfect and those translating it are on the same level as the original Apostles which is hardly the case.
No matter how you slice it,m the KJV is a translation of the actuality greek and hebrew text and is not the original Word of God
No matter how you slice it,m the KJV is a translation of the actuality greek and hebrew text and is not the original Word of God
You are doing too much copy and pasting without much thinking
it is separating the Jewish Passover from pagan celebrations if you can read and comprehend, the one celebrating easter was Herod and he was killing Christians to try and impress the jews, how can it be describing Passover when Passover has already finished? they are in the days of unleavened bread.
If your answer is a copy and paste you are not prepared to think for yourself.
it is separating the Jewish Passover from pagan celebrations if you can read and comprehend, the one celebrating easter was Herod and he was killing Christians to try and impress the jews, how can it be describing Passover when Passover has already finished? they are in the days of unleavened bread.
If your answer is a copy and paste you are not prepared to think for yourself.