The Error of KJV-Onlyism
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This is one of the most glaring problems with this belief. You can't find it in His word, and they hold to it almost as if one is not truly saved unless they accept the Holy KJV as supreme above all. To be clear this is not holding Gods word above all, this is holding a specific version in a specific language above all, when His word says nothing about this. It's like one of the most important doctrines they hold to is not found in scripture at all. This doesn't even mention or take into account the insane amount of writing, collecting, and preservation of EVERYTHING that came before it that was used to create the KJV in the first place.
It honestly makes no sense at all to me unless you read about all the wickedness of how the other versions are made and how Satan is corrupting Gods word slowly, but no fear, God already gave us the KJV, the ONLY REAL Bible, completely perfect and without error, better than anything before or after, let's lift up this book! Then show how Satan's wicked hand is in these other translations attacking His divinity and the Gospel. You learn all this then work backwards into the position that the KJV is the ultimate. Because it make no sense at all from the other direction moving forward through time. Not to mention that this claim is in direct opposition to what God tells us about His word and how far Satan will "prevail" against it. Saying Satan is changing it is kind of telling God that He's wrong. Right? Anyway I believe this is just another pointless way to divide the body, well not pointless in the sense it makes us study harder, just in the sense of us dividing over it.
It honestly makes no sense at all to me unless you read about all the wickedness of how the other versions are made and how Satan is corrupting Gods word slowly, but no fear, God already gave us the KJV, the ONLY REAL Bible, completely perfect and without error, better than anything before or after, let's lift up this book! Then show how Satan's wicked hand is in these other translations attacking His divinity and the Gospel. You learn all this then work backwards into the position that the KJV is the ultimate. Because it make no sense at all from the other direction moving forward through time. Not to mention that this claim is in direct opposition to what God tells us about His word and how far Satan will "prevail" against it. Saying Satan is changing it is kind of telling God that He's wrong. Right? Anyway I believe this is just another pointless way to divide the body, well not pointless in the sense it makes us study harder, just in the sense of us dividing over it.
Why God preserved His Word in English.
Also, Isaiah 34:16 is a prophecy of the completed Bible, as well.
See this video here to learn more:
- Although English as a language is not descended from Latin as the Romance languages are, about 60% of English words are of Latin origin due to borrowing. (Source). Latin was written on a sign on the cross.
- English-speaking countries like America have been the strongest in contributing to the spread of the gospel and God’s Word over the world. Britain gave us the Bible which became the most printed book in the world and influenced many throughout history, unlike any other book or Bible. Why would God use a country that did not spread His Word or that oppresses Christianity? Look at a world map and see which countries have the greatest Christian influence and English-speaking countries are at the top.
- The Great Commission. It is in the best interest of the Lord to spread His teachings to all nations if He chose English to preserve His perfect Word because English is spoken in many places in the world as a secondary language.
- English is the global language. List of reasons why: (a) You can see signs in English all over the world. (b) Russian pilots are required to speak English (c) Higher education (International Academia field) is tied to America or English if they want to advance (d) International airports speak English (e) Taught as a secondary language (f) English films and music influence certain countries.
- The most influential Bible just so happened to be translated into English before it was the global language. This is because God knows the future. He can see the end from the beginning (Note: Yes, it is true that 1600s English is not the primary language of today, but it is still English and a part of our Modern English).
- God did not keep His words in Hebrew and Aramaic but He moved them to the Greek language. So God was not obligated to keep the old Hebrew to preserve His words for the New Testament.
- Pentecost. God was able to unite a singular understanding out of many languages. God could have communicated just among certain groups with others of a different language not understanding. God could have spoken in Hebrew and Greek too. But obviously did not do that. The reasons are obvious because the existence of multiple languages normally breeds confusion. So it makes sense that God would unify people over one book that is settled and not ever changing Modern Bibles like the changing sands of the desert.
- God is going to one day get back to one pure language in the Millennium (See: Zephaniah 3:9). This will not be English, but the point here is that God is focused on unity in communicating. The Tower of Babel was an example of God’s judgment. Yet, many today support confusion with many Bibles that convey different and contradictory things between each other.
- Many English speaking countries all still speak like the King James Bible today and use many of its idioms that it popularized.
Also, Isaiah 34:16 is a prophecy of the completed Bible, as well.
See this video here to learn more:
Unlike you guys right? Who day in and day out teach how the gates of hell are prevailing against Gods word? It never existed before the KJV, (which in my mind would make it hard to write the KJV so many years later) and has never been recaptured for preservation since, just the one HOLY VERSION. Your made a false idol of the KJV and even reject Gods word to do so saying that it's being and has been corrupted.
So you think that some translations are not the word of God? Which ones and why?
On another level, it is impossible to create a translation which is a 100% "mirror" of the ancient languages. Ancient Hebrew, Aramaic, and Koine Greek are very, very different from English. They cannot be translated literally! Additionally, the source documents (scrolls) differ from each other, so decisions must be made about which sources to use.
I am convinced that, with very few exceptions, English Bibles convey God's message to us clearly and accurately. Personally, I prefer modern translations because they are written in the language I have used my entire life. I have no desire to retranslate early 17th century Englyshe into the language I read every single day.
On another level, it is impossible to create a translation which is a 100% "mirror" of the ancient languages. Ancient Hebrew, Aramaic, and Koine Greek are very, very different from English. They cannot be translated literally! Additionally, the source documents (scrolls) differ from each other, so decisions must be made about which sources to use.
I am convinced that, with very few exceptions, English Bibles convey God's message to us clearly and accurately. Personally, I prefer modern translations because they are written in the language I have used my entire life. I have no desire to retranslate early 17th century Englyshe into the language I read every single day.
I believe I have said this before, but it is worth repeating...
I believe that the KJV-only people feel some false religiosity when they read (and defend!) that translation. They come up with all kinds of "proofs", none of which hold up to reasonable examination.
In their minds, 17th Century Englyshe must be God's true language. Why? Because it sounds "lofty" and "poetic". After all, when God appeared in human form as a rural Galilean, he must have spoken a lofty, poetic language (or so they believe). In reality, Jesus was a rural man who spoke Aramaic, a Hebrew dialect common to the region. It was the Pharisees who were the legalists, the KJV-only people of their day. In their arrogance, they were so sure that they UNDERSTOOD God's word that they missed God!!!
I cannot understand why anyone would use a Bible that is not written in their normal language! The concepts of the Bible are hard enough to understand without obfuscating their meaning in a centuries-old variant of English. I haven't failed to notice that nobody in these discussions communicates in 17th Century English! Why not, if it's the most accurate form of the language? Don't they want to be clearly understood???
I think people enter into a false religiosity when they believe that the King James translation is actually God's inerrant word. Why wouldn't God communicate His true word in the form of language that everyone uses, hears, and understands in 2024?
I believe that the KJV-only people feel some false religiosity when they read (and defend!) that translation. They come up with all kinds of "proofs", none of which hold up to reasonable examination.
In their minds, 17th Century Englyshe must be God's true language. Why? Because it sounds "lofty" and "poetic". After all, when God appeared in human form as a rural Galilean, he must have spoken a lofty, poetic language (or so they believe). In reality, Jesus was a rural man who spoke Aramaic, a Hebrew dialect common to the region. It was the Pharisees who were the legalists, the KJV-only people of their day. In their arrogance, they were so sure that they UNDERSTOOD God's word that they missed God!!!
I cannot understand why anyone would use a Bible that is not written in their normal language! The concepts of the Bible are hard enough to understand without obfuscating their meaning in a centuries-old variant of English. I haven't failed to notice that nobody in these discussions communicates in 17th Century English! Why not, if it's the most accurate form of the language? Don't they want to be clearly understood???
I think people enter into a false religiosity when they believe that the King James translation is actually God's inerrant word. Why wouldn't God communicate His true word in the form of language that everyone uses, hears, and understands in 2024?
I never seen personally that the Earth is round but it is my opinion that this is so based on many evidences. The same is true with the perfect Word existing in English. I mean, we do follow the Bible that is based on faith, right? I mean, I cannot prove Jesus’ resurrection beyond a shadow of a doubt but I believe it because God’s Word is trustworthy. I believe the doctrines of the purity and preservation of God’s Word because again the Bible teaches these truths and is trustworthy. If these doctrines are true, then we would see His word in existence today.
Here's another prophecy that no other versions of the world would fit except KJB
Isaiah 28:11-14
King James Version
11 For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people.
12 To whom he said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear.
13 But the word of the Lord was unto them precept upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little; that they might go, and fall backward, and be broken, and snared, and taken.
14 Wherefore hear the word of the Lord, ye scornful men, that rule this people which is in Jerusalem.
Isaiah 28:11-14
King James Version
11 For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people.
12 To whom he said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear.
13 But the word of the Lord was unto them precept upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little; that they might go, and fall backward, and be broken, and snared, and taken.
14 Wherefore hear the word of the Lord, ye scornful men, that rule this people which is in Jerusalem.
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