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Did Jesus Die on The Cross for The Just/Elect/Saved Whose Names Are Written in The Book of Life OR
- Thread starter MerSee
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Yes, I think I can.
Why did Jesus teach in parables? Jesus explained to His followers that He used parables for two purposes: (1) To make the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven simple and understandable for His disciples—those who study and discipline themselves and seek His Word. (2) To conceal the kingdom's mysteries from those who do not seek Him and, as a result, do not have eyes to see and ears to hear.
Matthew 13:9-15 Who hath ears to hear, let him hear. And the disciples came, and said unto him, Why speakest thou unto them in parables? He answered and said unto them, Because it is given unto you to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it is not given. For whosoever hath, to him shall be given, and he shall have more abundance: but whosoever hath not, from him shall be taken away even that he hath. Therefore speak I to them in parables: because they seeing see not; and hearing they hear not, neither do they understand. And in them is fulfilled the prophecy of Esaias, which saith, By hearing ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see, and shall not perceive: For this people's heart is waxed gross, and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes they have closed; lest at any time they should see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and should understand with their heart, and should be converted, and I should heal them.
Mark 4:9-12 And he said unto them, he that hath ears to hear, let him hear. And when he was alone, they that were about him with the twelve asked of him the parable. And he said unto them, Unto you it is given to know the mystery of the kingdom of God: but unto them that are without, all these things are done in parables: That seeing they may see, and not perceive; and hearing they may hear, and not understand; lest at any time they should be converted, and their sins should be forgiven them.
Why did Jesus teach in parables? Jesus explained to His followers that He used parables for two purposes: (1) To make the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven simple and understandable for His disciples—those who study and discipline themselves and seek His Word. (2) To conceal the kingdom's mysteries from those who do not seek Him and, as a result, do not have eyes to see and ears to hear.
Matthew 13:9-15 Who hath ears to hear, let him hear. And the disciples came, and said unto him, Why speakest thou unto them in parables? He answered and said unto them, Because it is given unto you to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it is not given. For whosoever hath, to him shall be given, and he shall have more abundance: but whosoever hath not, from him shall be taken away even that he hath. Therefore speak I to them in parables: because they seeing see not; and hearing they hear not, neither do they understand. And in them is fulfilled the prophecy of Esaias, which saith, By hearing ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see, and shall not perceive: For this people's heart is waxed gross, and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes they have closed; lest at any time they should see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and should understand with their heart, and should be converted, and I should heal them.
Mark 4:9-12 And he said unto them, he that hath ears to hear, let him hear. And when he was alone, they that were about him with the twelve asked of him the parable. And he said unto them, Unto you it is given to know the mystery of the kingdom of God: but unto them that are without, all these things are done in parables: That seeing they may see, and not perceive; and hearing they may hear, and not understand; lest at any time they should be converted, and their sins should be forgiven them.
And to put an even finer point on what said in your paragraph describing the "perfect tense": The action that was completed "in the past" was in eternity "past" when God sovereignly decreed who his elect would be... and would not be by logical inference, since he chose to not have mercy and compassion on them, as he did with the former group.
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Of course not. There were plenty of people throughout the Biblical era and there are plenty of people now who hear/read the word of God, but unless God gives them understanding -- "ears to hear" -- it goes "in one ear and out the other".
It is obvious even on this forum that some people hear/read God's words/Word, yet they lack understanding.
It is obvious even on this forum that some people hear/read God's words/Word, yet they lack understanding.
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Jesus had to explain the parables to His disciples, so clearly they didn't understand them.
Mark 4:10-14, "When he was alone, those around him with the twelve asked him about the parables. He said to them, “The secret of the kingdom of God has been given to you. But to those outside, everything is in parables,
so that although they look they may look but not see,
and although they hear they may hear but not understand,
so they may not repent and be forgiven.”
He said to them, [His disciples] “Don’t you understand this parable? Then how will you understand any parable? "
Mark 4:10-14, "When he was alone, those around him with the twelve asked him about the parables. He said to them, “The secret of the kingdom of God has been given to you. But to those outside, everything is in parables,
so that although they look they may look but not see,
and although they hear they may hear but not understand,
so they may not repent and be forgiven.”
He said to them, [His disciples] “Don’t you understand this parable? Then how will you understand any parable? "
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