Did Jesus Die on The Cross for The Just/Elect/Saved Whose Names Are Written in The Book of Life OR

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FollowerofShiloh

Well-known member
Jan 24, 2024
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Why? How weren't the free wills of the religious leaders violated? And if you cannot explain this adequately, then you are talking out of both sides of your mouth all at once and simultaneously.
Their Free Will was definitely removed. They were blinded and deafened by God.
 

FollowerofShiloh

Well-known member
Jan 24, 2024
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You just said God made them do it. They had no choice according to you. That has everything to do with freewill.
So did God kidnap their will?
I am talking about Free Will in general. But those Pharisees were indeed blinded and deafened by God on purpose.
 

FollowerofShiloh

Well-known member
Jan 24, 2024
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8 just as it is written,

“God gave them a spirit of stupor,
eyes not to see and ears not to hear,
until this very day.

....but by their fall salvation has come to the Gentiles
 

cv5

Well-known member
Nov 20, 2018
23,006
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They were blinded and deafened by God.
As was Pharaoh. Because of his free will decision to harden his heart against God's Word, ambassadors, and witnesses. Despite the vast overwhelming evidence.

God closing the door to grace and walking away. Happens all the time. According to his OWN omniscience wisdom and perfect justice. This because God has His Own free will too.....and does all of His pleasure.
 

Mem

Senior Member
Sep 23, 2014
7,159
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What man means for evil God works for the good of those who love Him.

There's a teaching from my rabbi that I had been meant to tune into, but it's probably been long buried under newly updated subjects of study since the time I first heard of it, probably more than a few years ago by now. It was titled something like, "Cruel to Be Kind." And indeed, I've have often noted that I could discern more love from the crabbier people than I'd ever had from those whose demeanor were sunshine and lollipoppies *poppies...poppieees...poppies will make them sleep...sleep...sleeep...
 

selahsays

Well-known member
May 31, 2023
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I seriously doubt the Pharisees would have killed Jesus without God Blinding them and Deafening them so they would turn on Him and fulfilled the Prophecy of Isaiah that commanded His death.
Isaiah 53:10-12: Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise Him; He has put Him to grief. When You make His soul an offering for sin, He shall see His seed, He shall prolong His days, And the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in His hand. He shall see the labor of His soul, and be satisfied. By His knowledge My righteous Servant shall justify many, For He shall bear their iniquities. Therefore I will divide Him a portion with the great, And He shall divide the spoil with the strong, Because He poured out His soul unto death, And He was numbered with the transgressors, And He bore the sin of many, And made intercession for the transgressors.

It wouldn’t have happened if it had not pleased the Father. Because of Christ’s sacrifice on the Cross, we can be forgiven of all our sins. When the time came, God made sure that everything said in His prophetic Word would come to pass.
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
60,194
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Amazes me that all of the prophecy that was fulfilled by God that you don't see God made the Pharisees kill Jesus. It was even fulfilled before the foundation of the Earth. Had they not been blinded to the truth do you sincerely think they would not have accepted Jesus like everyone else did?

And God fulfilling His Plan to kill Jesus has no bearing on Free Will whatsoever.

You deny Free Will as your own belief so anything anyone says would not be accepted by you.


Pizza is very good and thank you!
Enjoy your Dinner!
It amazes me that you refuse to admit that the Pharisees were not commanded by God to kill Jesus.

And yeah, free will is nowhere taught in the Bible. The natural man is a slave to sin. The natural man:

the Bible teaches that we sin because we are sinners
all our righteous acts are like filthy rags
there are NONE righteous
a bad tree cannot produce good fruit
all are under the control of the evil one
needs to be rescued
his heart is deceitful and desperately wicked
is born dead in transgression and sin
is held captive by a love for sin
will not seek God
he loves the darkness
does not understand the things of God
suppresses the truth of God in unrighteousness
continues to willfully live in sin
sinful lifestyle seems right to men
rejects the gospel of Christ as foolishness
hostile toward God in their mind
does not subject itself to the law of God, for it is unable to do so
 

studier

Well-known member
Apr 18, 2024
1,189
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And yeah, free will is nowhere taught in the Bible.
I suppose I should first ask you to define what you mean by "free will" -

Do you mean that man is not free to choose?​
Or do you mean that man has no will, no choice, no volition (synonyms of "will") - no faculty to choose?​

The natural man is a slave to sin.
Since this is your next sentence, it looks like you're saying man has no freedom [of will] because he's a slave.

So, man has no will - no ability to choose - no volition - because he's a slave?​
Or does man have volition, but it's not free to choose?​

If we start at the beginning:
When God commanded the first man and woman not to eat from the tree, was God's command issued to man who was unable or able to choose?​
When the woman was deceived and ate, did she choose or not choose to eat?​
When the man was not deceived and ate, did he choose or not choose to eat?​
In general, are commands given to man who has volition, or does not have volition - IOW, what's the purpose of a command?​
 

Inquisitor

Well-known member
Mar 17, 2022
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Thanks for sharing what you think is obvious. However, I am a Produce Specialist and likely know more about nutrition that most. But, since you have placed yourself in the seat of Understanding, Knowledge, and Wisdom regarding food, what can I do about that . . .
Nothing you can do.
Mwhaaaaaaaa.
 

Inquisitor

Well-known member
Mar 17, 2022
2,951
867
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I suppose I should first ask you to define what you mean by "free will" -

Do you mean that man is not free to choose?​
Or do you mean that man has no will, no choice, no volition (synonyms of "will") - no faculty to choose?​



Since this is your next sentence, it looks like you're saying man has no freedom [of will] because he's a slave.

So, man has no will - no ability to choose - no volition - because he's a slave?​
Or does man have volition, but it's not free to choose?​

If we start at the beginning:
When God commanded the first man and woman not to eat from the tree, was God's command issued to man who was unable or able to choose?​
When the woman was deceived and ate, did she choose or not choose to eat?​
When the man was not deceived and ate, did he choose or not choose to eat?​
In general, are commands given to man who has volition, or does not have volition - IOW, what's the purpose of a command?​
This is the fundamental problem, agreement on the definition of words.
Debatable. I think that many know that they are spinning their wheels in vain.
As do many in the other cults.
Actually, cult members are usually the offspring of cult members.
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
60,194
29,500
113
I suppose I should first ask you to define what you mean by "free will" -

Do you mean that man is not free to choose?​
Or do you mean that man has no will, no choice, no volition (synonyms of "will") - no faculty to choose?​

Since this is your next sentence, it looks like you're saying man has no freedom [of will] because he's a slave.

So, man has no will - no ability to choose - no volition - because he's a slave?​
Or does man have volition, but it's not free to choose?​

If we start at the beginning:
When God commanded the first man and woman not to eat from the tree, was God's command issued to man who was unable or able to choose?​
When the woman was deceived and ate, did she choose or not choose to eat?​
When the man was not deceived and ate, did he choose or not choose to eat?​
In general, are commands given to man who has volition, or does not have volition - IOW, what's the purpose of a command?​
We know God's moral will for us by the commands He gives. You conflate having a choice or being able to make choices with having a will that is free. Man's will is constrained by too many factors to be considered free, and Scripture does not teach that the natural man has a will that is free. Quite the contrary. Scripture teaches that the whole world is under the control of the evil one. Scripture teaches that the natural man is dead in sin and is in need of a spiritual rebirth. If we start at the beginning, you may have to acknowledge that Adam was of the natural world and God knew he would sin, and sin deliberately knowing he was sinning and not deceived as Eve was. The natural man =

the Bible teaches that we sin because we are sinners
all our righteous acts are like filthy rags
there are NONE righteous
a bad tree cannot produce good fruit
all are under the control of the evil one
we need to be rescued
man’s heart is deceitful and desperately wicked
man is born dead in transgression and sin
he is held captive by a love for sin
will not seek God
he loves the darkness
does not understand the things of God
suppress the truth of God in unrighteousness
continues to willfully live in sin
sinful lifestyle seems right to men
rejects the gospel of Christ as foolishness
hostile toward God in their mind
does not subject itself to the law of God, for it is unable to do so
 

studier

Well-known member
Apr 18, 2024
1,189
233
63
We know God's moral will for us by the commands He gives. You conflate having a choice or being able to make choices with having a will that is free.
How am I conflating something by asking you to explain what you mean?

You're using a two-word phrase, "free" and "will". I'm using some synonyms for "will" (choice, volition) in order to give us some range to examine it, define it. Are these synonyms agreeable to you?

If we start at the beginning, you may have to acknowledge that Adam was of the natural world and God knew he would sin, and sin deliberately knowing he was sinning and not deceived as Eve was
How does this answer whether or not Adam and Even made a choice and thus had will/volition? Also, using the phrase "free will/choice/volition" were they free to decide what to do? Were they free to choose what to do?

The way I read this phrase, we have an adjective "free" modifying the noun "will". So, some definitions from a quick search using Google:

noun: will; plural noun: wills
  1. the faculty by which a person decides on and initiates action.

adjective: free

1. not under the control or in the power of another; able to act or be done as one wishes.​
"I have no ambitions other than to have a happy life and be free"​

2. not or no longer confined or imprisoned.​
"the researchers set the birds free"​

So, man had a [mental] faculty to decide and his faulty to decide is not under the control or power of another - his faculty to decide is not confined or imprisoned - his faculty to decide is able to act and do as he wishes (decides).​
Does this seem to you to explain the condition of Adam and Eve in the Garden when God commanded them not to eat of the Tree?​
if not, then why not?​
 

PaulThomson

Well-known member
Oct 29, 2023
3,474
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Why? How weren't the free wills of the religious leaders violated? And if you cannot explain this adequately, then you are talking out of both sides of your mouth all at once and simultaneously.
They wanted to kill Jesus. God did not unilaterally replace a desire to free Jesus with a desire to kill Him. Hence, their wills were free.
 

PaulThomson

Well-known member
Oct 29, 2023
3,474
455
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just said God made them do it. They had no choice according to you. That has everything to do with freewill.
So did God kidnap their will?
They wanted to kill Jesus. God used his omnipotence to prevent them killoling Jesus by any means other than crucifixion. They tried to kill Jesus by stoning. God prevented them. They tried to kill Jesus by throwing Him off a cliff. God prevented them. So, they did their own will by killing Jesus by crucifixion, which God allowed.
 

HeIsHere

Well-known member
May 21, 2022
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How am I conflating something by asking you to explain what you mean?

There is no conflation, slavery doesn't eliminate free will, slavery inhibits it.
If one states there is no free will, meaning man can only act according to causes/influences outside his will than that is determinism.

Hyper Calvinism would fall in the determinism camp.

Now Calvinism-lite seeks to balance this by allowing no free will but limited choice, and no choice when it comes to believing he Gospel.

It really is very convoluted.

The arguments about free will/determinism are philosophical in nature. Augustine liked to philosophize and his ideas still permeate western thinking.

Scripture states "even as were are made slave to righteousness" yet we still sin....... so being "slave to sin" does not negate a will which can act freely apart from outside influences.

There is no scripture that states the impact of the fall was to negate man's ability to hear the powerful Gospel message and be unable to respond to the truth which is heard.
 

cv5

Well-known member
Nov 20, 2018
23,006
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It amazes me that you refuse to admit that the Pharisees were not commanded by God to kill Jesus.

And yeah, free will is nowhere taught in the Bible. The natural man is a slave to sin. The natural man:

the Bible teaches that we sin because we are sinners
all our righteous acts are like filthy rags
there are NONE righteous
a bad tree cannot produce good fruit
all are under the control of the evil one
needs to be rescued
his heart is deceitful and desperately wicked
is born dead in transgression and sin
is held captive by a love for sin
will not seek God
he loves the darkness
does not understand the things of God
suppresses the truth of God in unrighteousness
continues to willfully live in sin
sinful lifestyle seems right to men
rejects the gospel of Christ as foolishness
hostile toward God in their mind
does not subject itself to the law of God, for it is unable to do so
Psa 14:1
The fool ***hath said in his heart***, (a free will act of rebellion) (There is) ***no God***. They (the fool) are corrupt, they (the fool) have done abominable works, there is none (of these fools) that doeth good.
Psa 14:2
The LORD looked down from heaven upon the children of men, to see if there were any (of these fools) that did understand, and seek God.
Psa 14:3
They (the fools) are all gone aside, they (the fools) are all together become filthy: there is none (of these fools) that doeth good, no, not one.

Paul quoting Ps 14 and Ps 53:
Rom 3:10
As it is written, There is none (of these fools) righteous, no, not one:
Rom 3:11
There is none (of these fools) that understandeth, there is none (of these fools) that seeketh after God.

==============================================================================================================

Fortunately for them, Adam, Noah, David and Paul were NOT fools.

And no, the Pharisees were NOT commanded by God to kill Jesus. Nor did God command Satan to do ANYTHING that He did during passion week. All parties were free will agents. And the whenever the Pharisees were speaking lies about Jesus-God, they were speaking of THEIR own and were the father of their own lies.

Jhn 8:44
Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.