Strange flesh

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Sep 24, 2012
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#1
What are the statutes or ordinances of God for someone who has more than one wife when it comes to sexually immoral behaviour, or strange flesh (if I'm not mistaken)? Like I think oral sex is sexually immoral if you have one wife and etc... but if you have more than one wife, like King David did, does that make it not sexually immoral considering someone would need to spend time with more than one wife at the same time in a bedroom? Sorry for the explicitness of the post. I think there may even be people alive today who have more than one wife in the Middle East possibly, to note that.
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
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#2
David did not have the hundreds of wives that Solomon did. I think you may have confused the two?

Also, having a thousand wives (or 700 wives plus 300 concubines), does not necessarily mean more than one at a time in the bedroom. Mary and Joseph were considered husband and wife before they consummated the marriage, which is why Joseph would have sought to divorce her knowing her pregnancy was not on account of anything he had done, before he was informed Who the father truly was.
 

maxwel

Senior Member
Apr 18, 2013
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#3
What specific behaviors WITH multiple wives constitutes immoral behavior?

Just HAVING multiple wives constitutes immoral behavior.


There is no way to spin the "multiple wife" scenario to make it ok.
You're allowed one wife at a time.

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Oct 19, 2024
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#4
What specific behaviors WITH multiple wives constitutes immoral behavior?

Just HAVING multiple wives constitutes immoral behavior.


There is no way to spin the "multiple wife" scenario to make it ok.
You're allowed one wife at a time.

.
Yes, and with your one spouse, Paul condemns "unnatural sexual relations" in RM 1:26-27,
which would mean not using sex organs as designed. Hope there is no need to say more
that is "shameful even to mention" (EPH 5:12).
 

lrs68

Active member
Dec 30, 2024
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#5
Ummmmmm, I've never seen anyone attempt to connect STRANGE FLESH to a male/female combination even with multiple wives before. It was always understood in the Hebrew Communities that was same sex or angelic/human or human/animal connections.

I will definitely keep watching how this thread plays out 😁
 

maxwel

Senior Member
Apr 18, 2013
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#6
Yes, and with your one spouse, Paul condemns "unnatural sexual relations" in RM 1:26-27,
which would mean not using sex organs as designed. Hope there is no need to say more
that is "shameful even to mention" (EPH 5:12).
When the Bible talks about leaving the "natural use", the context, very specifically, in both Romans 1:26 and 1:27 is homosexuality.
The very clear and explicit context of both verses is unmistakably homosexuality.
Now, if you want to draw some general principles, and discuss some other "implicit" meanings... that's fair game for discussion.
(God obviously made parts of our bodies with certain functions, and not with other functions.)

However, in the age in which we live, we don't want to miss the clear, explicit context of both verses being homosexuality.


Have a great week.

.
 
Oct 19, 2024
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#8
When the Bible talks about leaving the "natural use", the context, very specifically, in both Romans 1:26 and 1:27 is homosexuality.
The very clear and explicit context of both verses is unmistakably homosexuality.
Now, if you want to draw some general principles, and discuss some other "implicit" meanings... that's fair game for discussion.
(God obviously made parts of our bodies with certain functions, and not with other functions.)

However, in the age in which we live, we don't want to miss the clear, explicit context of both verses being homosexuality.


Have a great week.

.
Yes, applying the explicit teaching about homosexuality has implications for heterosex,
but I trust we won't need to go into detail about not using sex organs as designed.

(CC could get X-rated very quickly! :^)