Is Shavuot a shadow of the Great and Terrible day of the Lord?
First of all, we can see aspects of the resurrection life in all of the feasts of the Lord as well as other days like 2nd Passover, the 15th of Av, Hannukah and Purim. So the fact that there is some correlation to me is meaningless. We are told that no verse in the Bible is of its own interpretation. So then I want to gather every verse referring to the rapture and it will have to fit all of those verses.
Second of all, one very key aspect of Shavuot is the wave offering of the two leavened loaves. Now if you cannot interpret that I am not interested in any other theories you have. That is a critical component. However, a wave offering of a sheaf of Barley did depict the rapture at the time of Jesus resurrection, so that wave offering is very significant and indicates a rapture of two loaves of leavened bread. The question is why would the rapture at the start of the seven year tribulation be likened to two loaves of leavened bread? I realize many will try to make a square peg fit in a round hole, so we need to ask the Lord for wisdom on this.
Third, in order to make Shavuot appear to depict the rapture they don't call it Shavuot, they call it Pentecost. If you combine Shavuot with Pentecost then we do get more aspects of the rapture. So let's examine this. It is based on the traditional teaching of Christianity. That does not mean that it is wrong, but it does mean we need to be extra careful about this. Jesus told us specifically to beware of the traditional teachings of the pharisees. The teaching says that Jesus ascended 40 days after He rose from the dead based on a verse in Acts 1 that says the ascension was the fortieth time Jesus had appeared to the disciples. The problem with equating the 40th time to 40 days after the resurrection is that the second time Jesus appeared to the disciples was a week after the first time and the third time was when Peter said he wanted to go fishing and spent the entire night fishing. So at the very least you would assume that the 40th time was at least 47 or 48 days after the resurrection. However, I doubt that right after seeing Jesus the second time Peter told everyone he was going fishing.
Still based on Acts 1 it is reasonable to interpret the ascension to be 48 days after the resurrection. But we now have another problem, Shavuot, if the word Pentecost really refers to Shavuot, was 50 days after the resurrection. At the resurrection they are all in Jerusalem and Jesus tells them to remain there until the Spirit is poured out. But all Jews are required to be in Jerusalem for Shavuot, of course they will remain there. They are claiming Jesus said this two days before Shavuot. That makes no sense.
But the real problem for me is the fundamental premise that the Feasts of the Lord are prophetic and are a shadow of things to come. The entire basis to say that the rapture is on Shavuot is that they are saying that feast was prophetic shadow of the rapture. So then, what was the prophetic shadow of Jesus ascending to the throne? On Shavuot Moses ascended the Mountain to God the Father. That to me is the perfect shadow of the ascension. We have feast days celebrating Jesus conception, birth, circumcision, death, burial and resurrection. All of that supports the idea that these feasts are a prophetic shadow of things to come, the underlying principle in looking at Shavuot/Pentecost in the first place. But now, all of a sudden, there is no Feast commemorating Jesus ascending to the throne? What happens when Jesus ascends to the throne? We are told in Revelation 4 and 5 that He takes the scroll out of God's hand and opens the mystery hidden from ages and generation but now made known to us, that we are joint heirs with Christ and that Jesus Christ is now Lord of all. What happens on Shavuot? Moses, a type of Christ, receives the law which was a marriage proposal between God and man. When we are joined to the Lord and become one flesh with Him we become joint heirs with Him. Shavuot is the perfect prophetic shadow of Jesus ascending to the throne.
OK, so then what are the two leavened loaves? Leaven signifies the traditional teachings of religion. The Jews have their traditional teachings, that is the leaven and the word of God is the wheat that makes up the loaf. Likewise Christians have their traditional teachigns, that is the leaven and Jesus as the incarnated word is the wheat that makes up that loaf. Jesus said that He didn't come to abolish but to fulfill the law and that every jot and tittle would be fulfilled. This is what happens when Jesus ascends to the throne and opens the title deed to the earth.
But there are more problems with equating Pentecost with Shavuot. Why does the fact that it is 9AM prove that the disciples are not drunk on new wine? That makes absolutely no sense expect on the Feast of New Wine which is 50 days after Shavuot. Also why assume they are drunk on "new wine". That is very specific, why couldn't they have been drunk on old wine, or other forms of alcohol? Again, that makes no sense unless everyone was there to celebrate the feast of new wine.
So this simply means I don't accept the traditional non Biblical teaching that Jesus ascended ten days before Shavuot and that Shavuot was the feast of Pentecost. This does not in any way address whether or not Shavuot or Pentecost is a prophetic shadow of the rapture.